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"Ella siempre hacía el almuerzo."

Translation:She always used to make lunch.

5 years ago

13 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/Munjo
Munjo
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I wrote: "She was always making lunch", and that was marked incorrect, because I had omitted the article. Howewer, "She was always making the lunch" doesn't sound right to me.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ghostofthefuture
ghostofthefuture
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In English (American, at least), we seldom say "the lunch," so your translation should be accepted. Perhaps the reverse, though, in Spanish, would sound better with the article there?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Sdkfz182
Sdkfz182
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Yep. It's weird because it says these are both correct, and the second doesn't even have the article, only a different order: • She used to always make the lunch. • She always used to make lunch. ( I put "She used to always make lunch", which is supposedly wrong)

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

Perhaps DL doesn't like split infinitives. Very often, however, native English speakers do put "always" between "to" and "make." The reason English teachers proscribe split infinitives is because they are not syntactically logical.

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Joanna907
Joanna907
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Same here. "the lunch" Sounds awkward.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/michaeljmurphy

why not 'she would always make lunch' ?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/pauljmarvin

You're right, we use "would" in English to reflect indefinite duration in the past- just as the imperfect tense can in Spanish.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/friend050

"she used to always make lunch". Why does DOU require a "the" before lunch?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/takyon42

I agree. She would always make lunch is the same thing as She always used to

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

"She would always make lunch" and "She always used to make lunch" may be almost the same in English, but they aren't the same in Spanish. Instead, Spanish tenses have different nuances of meaning.

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/StefanoRub1
StefanoRub1
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I have written "she always had lunch" but it seems incorrect. But "to have lunch" is accepted everywhere.
Fo example if i say "I hope you have had a good lunch" in one of the first sentences you learn in each english course.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

There is a difference between the verb to have/tener and the verb to make/hacer. That's why "She always had lunch" is incorrect. "Hacía" is translated as "made," "used to make," or "was making." In other words, the Spanish preterite translates to "made," and the Spanish imperfect translates to "made, used to make, or was making."

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/chaquetacorta

'preparing' is a perfectly good word for 'hacia' in this case.

4 months ago