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"Ellos se habían dirigido hacia el norte."

Translation:They had headed towards the north.

5 years ago

43 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/damalojo

Shouldn't "They had headed to the north" be accepted?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Babella

I guess not because we have the 'hacia' that translates as 'towards', we would translate your sentence as: ellos se habían dirigido al norte.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/cemaluslu
cemaluslu
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"They were headed to the north." is accepted

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/swingophelia

Strange - that seems to me to be a different expression (though close to the same meaning).

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DebWeber
DebWeber
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But not "They had gone to the north."

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/swingophelia

It is accepted now.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/cemaluslu
cemaluslu
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i agree with you

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DeutschCDMX
DeutschCDMX
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I think so, I am wrong too, but why?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/learnTACO32

Again the SE. The use of SE seems so vary random to me. I only understand its use when describing phrases like "to wash oneself/i pay myself etc... In the above sample sentence I dont understand How/Why the action being performed by the subject is also being acted upon the subject. Please somebody explain. Gracias

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Babella

It is a matter of the verb "dirigir" here, I think; "dirigir" means "to control", but its reflexive form "dirigirse" means "to head toward"...

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Isaiah-

Yeah, I think dirigir is related to direct. So I think of it as, "They directed themselves towards the north." But that wasn't accepted.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DianeLudmilla

That's exactly what I wanted to write but knowing Duolingo, I guessed it wouldn't be considered as right...but that's the meaning of "Ellos se habían dirigido hacia el norte.", right? And how "They were headed to the north." can be right?? "Ils s'étaient dirigés vers le nord" and not "Ils étaient menés vers le nord"!!??

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lisagnipura

Hola Diane: Why do write in French on a Spanish discussion page?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/catcampion

The same reason people write in English on a Spanish discussion page! Not everyone here has English as their first language.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DianeLudmilla

Sorry! But sometimes the conjugation is so close that it makes it easier to compare!

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/la.cortadora

I put that too

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/learnTACO32

Thank you Babella. Your response actually does help me. It lets me see that the use of SE is sometimes used just to convey a different meaning. Maybe Im looking to deeply into SE regarding this sample sentence structure.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Mark2020
Mark2020
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I have the same problem as you despite reading several different grammar books/web pages on the uses of se. All examples seem to be like ducharse or levantarse which are easy to understand. But usually when I come across se when reading I struggle to understand what its function is in that sentence. If I figure it out I'll let you know!

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/learnTACO32

i hear you mark

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Talca
Talca
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A lot of these reflexive verbs are idiomatic .i.e. they have a meaning that you have to memorize. For example ir is "to go" but irse, the reflexive form, is commonly "to go away" or "to leave." Just adding "myself" "himself" doesn't work. The meaning of the verb can actually change when it becomes a reflexive form. There is probably a list in one of the better Spanish grammar websites which lists more common verbs which change meaning when they become reflexive. Irse is a big one since it such a well-used one in both its forms. I think the beginning grammar books don't want to totally bamboozle you, so they start with me lavo. That is still uncharted territory for anyone who has not studied a romance language before. A lot of English speakers find the reflexive verbs a huge challenge.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lisagnipura

Hola learnTACO32: That is because the literal translation of this sentence is "They had directed themselves towards the north". Note "themselves" because the "se" makes it reflexive, the action referring back to the subject. "Dirigirse" is the verb.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/salsabandit

what's the problem with "they had headed northward" ?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/howcheng
howcheng
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I did the same thing. I reported it.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/yimantuwingyai
yimantuwingyai
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"They had directed themselves toward the north" - would this be acceptable?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/dsmilleresq

Wouldn't "they had headed FOR the north" be a fair translation? It seems like in English "heading to" someplace and "heading for" someplace has essentially the same meaning.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jindr004
jindr004
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No. That is incorrect in both English and Spanish.

The reason is, "to head for the north" means the north is their destination. To "head toward the north" means that they traveled in that direction but their destination is not stated. It may even be said of something that has no destination.

That difference in meaning is paralleled in Spanish: Se dirigieron al norte is to travel to/for the north.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/learnTACO32

Why is my translation " They had led themselves toward the north" wrong?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Talca
Talca
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Often the reflexive pronoun is dropped in English. Duolingo programmed its computer to not--for the most part--accept reflexive pronouns in sentences wth reflexive verbs.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/hucknoog
hucknoog
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why isn't "they had been directed towards the north" correct?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/eshewan

I went the passive route as well and was denied.

According to Babella, whom I have learned to trust, 'dirigir' means "to control" when it's not reflexive. In case 'se' can't serve double-duty by making the sentence passive AND making the verb reflexive, you would have to translate 'dirigir' using it's non-reflexive meaning if you're using 'se' to make the sentence passive, i.e., "They had been controlled towards the north," which doesn't make any sense. Maybe you just have to know that dirigir has a reflexive form???

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Melita2
Melita2
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Eshewan, dirigir means to control or to direct and takes a direct object. Dirige el proyecto. He directs the project. If you are the person you are directing, i.e. going, I direct myself, then the verb to use is dirigirse.

Hucknoog, they are directing themselves, not being directed by some unknown person. Your sentence would literally be: Ellos habían sido dirigido hacia el norte. But that is not the way this idea would be said in Spanish. Better: Se habían dirigido hacia el norte, which is the passive form not the reflexive form, although the same little word "se" comes into play. This could be translated as "One had directed them toward the north." Or They had been etc.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/eshewan

I just had this sentence again (didn't have to translate it, which is why I didn't get it wrong this time haha). The sentence you give as "the passive form not the reflexive form" is the same sentence as the one at the top of this page, no? Does that mean a passive translation should be accepted?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/eshewan

Heh, looks like I was over-complicating things!

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/David_Jeremy

I kind of understand the reflexive idea, but how do you know in this case that se refers to themselves without context. Could it also mean "They had led (him or her or them) towards the north" ??

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Melita2
Melita2
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Without the "se", it wouldn't be reflexive, would it? Your suggested sentence would be Ellos lo/la/los/las habían dirigido... The direct object pronoun precedes the verb.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MattShanah4

My translation was rejected for using 'toward' instead of 'towardS'. Duolingo, they are interchangeable. https://www.merriam-webster.com/words-at-play/toward-towards-usage

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/vieira.jluiz

Why "They had driven towards the north" wrong? Does someone knows?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/uppergardiner
uppergardiner
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I wrote the same and it was refused. I have reported it.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Beedem
Beedem
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"They had been heading northwards"?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DeFYent

I wrote "they had been led to the north." Is that wrong?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Abel-Cuevas

They headed north should be accepted

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jdmack56

"had guided themselves to the north" seems like a valid translation

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/yael8376

Why " They had directed towards the north" is wrong??

1 year ago