"The women and the men."
Translation:Kvinderne og mændene.
If mænd is already plural, then what is the reason for the e at the end of mændene?
To indicate plurality (as silly as it may sound given how it is obviously plural) but it would sound wrong without. The ending always corresponds to gender and number of a noun (just like det/den/de do). The same goes for words which don't change for plurals (e.g. skoen = The shoe, skoene = The shoes)
so in boys and men it was 'maend' and in women and men it is 'maendene' I;m confused...