"Allí se han preparado."
Translation:They have prepared there.
i just had to google gotten, i didn't realize it was a word, i just thought when someone said it, it was poor English lol
So "They have got prepared" would be how they would say it in England? When my students read books I sometimes get questions on the spelling/grammar, so I want to make sure I understand you clearly so I can pass on the info when they ask! :)
Hi Kristina821524. "They have got prepared" is technically correct, but doesn't sound very natural in English English. "They have got ready"would be more common ... or "they have prepared".
I have looked up my previously used comment on "gotten":
- "gotten" is definitely English. It is rarely used nowadays in most English-speaking areas, although it is common in the phrase "ill-gotten gains".
- "got" and "gotten" are past participles of get; both date back to Middle English; "got/gotten" is still used in the USA (particularly midlands and southern regions), where "got" relates to possession and "gotten" relates to acquisition. However, most English speakers worldwide consider "gotten" is now an obsolete orphan from the eighteenth century.
It doesn't help that "got" and "gotten" are frequently used wrongly. In fact marianne.w4 and Kristina821524 have both used mis-used "got/gotten" - at least in their 18th Century meaning. The clue is that "They have possessed prepared" and "They have acquired prepared" make no sense.
(Please don't take my comment personally, you two. It is just a feature of our constantly changing language. I would be happy to see it adopted generally, even though "get" is such a catch-all word that this construction is actually largely idiomatic and must be so difficult for English-learners to understand --- rather like French-learners struggle with "il y a" or the use of "en".)
Also "gotten" is often used by some people just to wind up any neighbours and colleagues who like to think they are better educated and more enlightened. :-)
Including "themselves" does help, but the main reason it looks odd in English is because it is a sentence that would only be used in context, either where "there" has already been identified, or in dialogue where there is a "there" to point to.
There are many examples like this in the Duolingo exercises. I get the impression that the compilers have simply lifted many of the sentences from a translated text without any appreciation that in isolation they look like nonsense.
That was certainly the problem with the former Translation exercises where we were expected to translate sentence by sentence rather than addressing the whole text like a real translator would do. (It is a shame that, instead of fixing this, the Translation exercises were scrapped altogether. With a little more effort and some common sense it could actually have been transformed into a valuable feature.)
The best way to treat these "nonsense" sentences is to ignore any meaning and just concentrate on the vocabulary and grammar.
I never had the opportunity to do any translation work, but I think you must be right. I have always been amazed at the amount of "nonsense" sentences I've found. I even had questions about whether Spanish-speaking people would even say things like that since many of the sentences would be of so little use in English. Your post actually makes sense, and I thank you for it.
In English you talk about "preparing" without any object, but not in Spanish. So if you aren't preparing something in particular, you have to use the reflexive.
Also you could translate this as 'They have been prepared there," which is accurate and Duolingo accepts. It's the passive use of the reflexive.
Hola Amigo duolearner12345: A reflexive verb is one in which the action reflects back upon the subject. Some verbs are always reflexive and will be shown that way in a dictionary: bañarse, for example, and will marked by the "se" on the end of the verb. Others are not always reflexive, but can be made reflexive by adding the "se" (like in the sentence we are talking about on this page). There are other uses of the "se" like making the verb passive instead of active, but that is another semester. So, in this sentence, look for the "se". When the verb is conjugated the "se" is removed from the infinitive and placed in front of the verb. You can think of the "se" as "themselves" although you do not have to translate the actual word. In other sentences, the "se" could also mean "himself", "herself" or "yourself" or "yourselves" depending on context. So, literally this sentence could be translated: "There, themselves they have prepared." but that doesn't sound right in English, so we just change the word order a bit and get: "There they have prepared (themselves)"
Is this the general case for Spanish reflexive verbs? That (assuming there aren't other markers in the sentence to clarify the distinction) there is ambiguity in the meaning of sentences with reflexive verbs: it could be that the object of the verb is the speaker, or it could be that the sentence is in passive voice?
I misheard "allí" as "ahí".
Here something on the difference from About.com: Although allí and ahí can sound similar in regions where the ll sound is softened and they are often translated the same in English, you should be careful not to confuse them. Ask a native Spanish speaker, ¿Qué pasa ahí? ("What's happening there?"), and the person will likely look in his or her vicinity. But ¿Qué pasa allí? (which you might translate as "What's happening over there?") will have the person looking in the distance.
In more detail: The three choices [for the English words "here" and "there"] are aquí, roughly the equivalent of "here"; ahí, roughly the equivalent of "there" when speaking of an object or action that is close to the person being spoken to; and allí, roughly the equivalent of "there" or "over there" when speaking of an object that is distant from both the speaker and the person being spoken to. Note also that ahí is sometimes used to refer to something emotionally close rather than simply physically close to the listener, so allí can suggest emotional as well as physical distance.
022/12/14 There are also allá and acá , which the people I know (mostly from northern Mexico) use much more often than aquí, allí or ahí, even in the context of moving tables and chairs around a room and asking if they should be put here or there.
I made the same error. Are we missing something? To me, our wrong answer makes more sense when spoken in English.
Person 1: They have prepared there.
Person 2: What? Over where?
Person 1: Why over THERE of course!
Person 2: Why didn't you just say that to begin with?
Person 1: Because I was marked wrong the first time. XD
OK, so comedy aside, what did we actually do wrong? I'm asking. Any takers?
You ask "what did we actually do wrong?", LowKey99.
The answer is "nothing". The mess-up is all down to the DL authors/compilers who frequently include sentences that look like nonsense when they are taken out of context.
Don't get distracted by trying to guess any meaning, just concentrate on the vocabulary and grammar.
I also find it useful when someone proposes a better version, but sadly I don't believe DL has the resources to actually incorporate our suggestions into the course very often.
I think that should be correct. To "get ready" is the same as to "prepare oneself" but it sounds more natural and seems like it would be used more in casual conversation. I think DL's translation of "they have prepared there" doesn't capture the reflexive nature of the verb as well as "they have gotten ready there."
No, sorry Amigo Anglobrasileiro: It does not mean they prepared the place, etc. It means they prepared THEMSELVES. That is what the "se" means. It is reflexive which means the action reflects back on the subject. In my humble opinion, DL has given a perfectly good sentence.