When we would ask the Great Estela, the world's best Spanish teacher questions like this, she would say, with an implied "GET IT IT'S A DIFFERNENT LANGUAGE" the explanation is "because eggs don't bounce? It made me accept the fact that English translation is not enough and that some things are different.
I would expect Duolingo does accept that, when the given phrase is <<¿llamó alguien?>>. In this example though the phrase is "¿Tuve alguna llamada?", which is specifically asking if there was a call FOR ME, meaning you don't want to know how many calls tia Trudy received while you were out.
Now, you can do it!
alguna is also singular, I guess in Spanish when you use 'alguna' it is singular
so in Spanish, is it correct to also say algunas llamadas? In other words, is alguna llamada and algunas llamadas interchangeable?
mariang: No. Spanish often uses the singular for things we would use plural in English. I am sure you would be understood if you used the plural, but it wouldn't be quite "native".
"Alguna llamada" means "any calls".
"Algunas llamadas" means "some calls".
Spanish is frugal with the use of the word "any".
And when it does use it, it almost always with a singular noun--even when an English speaker would use a plural noun.
Read this--especially the explanations of usage in the beige(pinkish?) boxes half way down the page:
Searching online it seems "alguna" can mean "one" or "a" when paired with a singular noun. So, does anyone know why this couldn't be "Did I have a call?"
"I had some calls?" Was marked wrong. Can anyone point out where Im going wrong?
Normally in English, for questions, when there is not interrogative word what, who, when, etc.) we put put the verb (or helper verb) first.
Was I correct?
Is he tired?
Did he agree?
(Yes, there are instances where we rely solely on rising inflection, as for "I had some calls?" But it's better to go with standard English for Duolingo--We (and DL) can't convey inflection in writing.
I had a call? marked as incorrect. Instead I was told by DL:
You used the wrong word. "Did i've a call?"
No one would ever use I've in this way.
I translated this sentence as "Did anyone call?" which I think is in the ballpark, but definitely not a home run. However Duolingo came back with "Did i've call?" which I think is hilarious.
Because we say ''any calls'' or ''a call'' in the context of telephone calls.
"Did I have someone call" was not accepted. To me it seems the equivalent of the above answer. I think my answer should have been accepted
No. To have someone call means to arrange for someone to call you. And as a question it makes little sense.
It is a computer without feeling for nuances. Don't get upset over trivial insignificant differences. Keep your eyes on the ball of learning a foreign language and forget that you ever will be perfect in it.
ALGUNAS LLAMADAS = plural
it still works for the current pronoun: ¿Tuve algunas llamadas?
Please don't demand the plural when there is none used.