"¿Por qué usted no me escribió?"
Translation:Why did you not write to me?
I tried ' why do you not write to me' (wrong) - so how do you know that the sentence means "didn't" rather than "don't" ?
I believe that "don't" would be present tense: escribir- to write; escribe (or escribes)- you write; no escribe/s- you do not/don't write. If you change that to past tense [ (no) escribiste/escribió- you (did not/didn't) write]. ¿Se siente?
Agreed. We are trying to learn past tense here. "didn't" = past tense; "don't" = present tense. Very different meanings. Perhaps, "I didn't know, but I do now know."
It would be bad if, PRIOR to this language course, I DIDN'T know Spanish, and yet AFTER the course, I still DON'T know Spanish.
didnt is past tense right? so what i do is just look at how the verb is in the sentence and use the proper form of do
DL lady's pronunciation was suspect to me. Trying to hear the inflection of a question. So I checked both of these:
por que usted no me escribió = Why did you not write me? porque usted no me escribió = Because you did not write me
I had the same reaction. "Por que" and "Porque" can only be differentiated in this sentence by voice inflection.
DL is too strict with english grammer. As long as student demonstrates his understaning of the sentence, DL should let it pass
I disagree. Inaccurate translation of grammar leads to inaccurate translations, e.g., incorrect understanding.. Sometimes, understanding correctly/ accurately is important.
In addition, some people want to learn how to speak clearly what they want to say, and to sound like they are not "hicks."
For example, it is sometimes crucial to know the (grammatical) difference between "didn't" and "don't.
Duolingo is inaccurate on a frequent basis. Even when you are correct, they show a different solution if it's available.
Nope, me oyes means you hear me. Present tense. me oíste means you heard me (or me oyó , for the usted form). The Me in your example is a direct object pronoun. The Me in the duolingo phrase is an indirect object pronoun.
What is the difference between "por qué" and "porqué"? When should one use one or another?
I guess that I am being taught the strict relationship between indirect objects and verbs and that perhaps in Spanish there is no way to say why haven't you written me but still I think that translation should have been allowed.
There is a way to say it, ¿por qué usted no me ha escrito? The problem is that it is a different tense than what is being used here. Here they are asking for the preterit. So why didn't you write me? Instead of why haven't you written me?. They are both times in the past but they are still different constructions, the latter (the one you've written) using an auxiliary verb (haber) and past participle to reflect what is known as the "present perfect".
the trans;ation says " why do YOU not write to me" so shouldn't this be, por que usted no me escribiste?
@Imanmomeni: The sentence is referring to you, formal "usted." If the sentence were referring to the subject informally than escribiste would be correct.