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  5. "Me tengo que despertar a las…

"Me tengo que despertar a las seis."

Translation:I have to wake up at six.

July 2, 2013

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Is this "me tengo que" instead of "yo tengo que" because of the verb despertarse?

September 14, 2013


Yes The 'tengo' is the yo form and yes the me is used because it stands for 'myself' which is not translated into English. Some verbs in English lost there reflexiveness a long time ago, but they can still be reflexive in Spanish. Have you ever heard anyone say 'sit yourself down'? That is reflective back onto the person doing the sitting. To me, most people do not say 'sit yourself down'. Any way, I digress...


I put "I have to wake myself up at six." It was marked wrong. I thought the same as you, that the "myself" was reflexive. By the way, "I have to wake myself up at six" is a reflexive English sentence, and it is perfectly respectable. English speakers never bother to say it because they intuitively use fewer words whenever possible. Does anyone know if this is a legitimate translation? If it is, I will report that it should be counted as correct.


Technically it is correct if you were translating word for word. However, English speakers would never say that. So in the realm of translation, it would be marked wrong.


That's interesting jfgordy. I've heard "sit yourself down" and also "calm yourself down". There are probably others.


Maybe, but don't worry yourself about it.


DL marked as correct "I have to wake at six".


What's wrong with I have to wake at six? They mean the same thing.


I agree. It's not wrong to say that


although it's true but it's not natural to say that, pero "I have to wake myself at six".


Talca, I would agree with you and answered "I must wake myself at six" and was incorrect.


There is a subtle difference in the meaning between the sentences.

(1) I have to wake [up] at 6. Six is the time at which I need to be awake. It really doesn't matter how that is accomplished. And ...

(2) I have to wake myself at 6. This could mean the same as (1), or it could mean that I have to do the waking myself, somehow without help or external assistance.

I think that the meaning of the verb despertarse (me [tengo que] despertar, in the given sentence) is more like in sentence (1).


In order to express the idea of no external help, in Spanish it would be “yo mismo me tengo que despertar a las seis“ or “yo solo tengo que despertarme...“ or “tengo que despertarme por mí mismo“, etc.


Would "Tengo que despertarme a las seis" be correct?


I asked the identical question above and Mavry, a native speaker from Chile, said it is acceptable. Use it.


This is how i would have expected to see it, as i was taught to show reflexive infinitive verbs this way.


Why is the reflexive verb not used here? Tengo que despertarme a las seis?


Without the me you would be waking someone else up at six, and he sentence would need a direct object. The idea behind reflexive verbs is that the action is done by one, to one's self, but I think always adding 'myself'. (this morning I shaved. This morning I shaved myself) is redundant. I don't see the point that if I don't say 'myself' it means someone else is doing the waking, or the shaving.


I agree with you in English, but Spanish makes the distinction.


I read rspreng as saying that. Of course it's "myself". So there is no need to emphasise it (in the English translation, as did the slew of people above, who then complained).


Actually this sentence does use the reflexive pronoun "me". A literal translation would be "Myself I have to wake up at six". An alternate and also correct way of saying it is: "Tengo que despertarme a las seis".


Thanks for adding that the sentence can also be used with the reflexive infinitive.


I would add that arturo above is wrong with that "myself, I have to..." formulation. The 'me' in front of tengo que is exactly the same as the 'me' tacked on the end of despertar. It is just the case that a pronoun (me, you, it, etc) can go before the auxiliary verb or joined onto the end of the infinitive - to give another example:
lo puedo hacer = puedo hacerlo = I can do it.


...nope. It's just how reflexive verbs work in Spanish.


Is it also correct to say "Tengo que me despertar a las seis"?


No. You could say Tengo que despertarme a las seis (attaching the me to the infinitive), but when you don't attach it to the infinitive you have to put it in front of the whole verb phrase.


I don't understand how "I have to wake them up at six" was wrong. It had "las" in there, and in this sentence "las" means "them" and its feminine. I don't know why that wrong.


That "las" is part of the time phrase, "a las seis" which means "at six (o'clock)." If it were a direct object pronoun, it would have to go before the verb and the sentence would be: "Las tengo que despertar a las seis." And, it would not be reflexive.


Oh, okay thanks.


Why not I must wake up at six?/????


In 99% of the sentences with "Tener que" Duolingo does not accept a translation of "must." They have programmed their system to accept "Have to" for that idiom. I like your sentence, Healthnut, but DL will surely take away your heart-healthy hearts, if you continue like that.


I answered "I must wake up at six o'clock" and it was accepted


That's because some forward-thinking individual reported that their answer, which was the same as yours, should be accepted and DL fixed it. It's frustrating that so many users just use the forums for complaining when they could report it and perhaps have the omitted acceptable translation added. Thanks for your comment.


I think that "I ought to / need to/ should ..." are also correct, no? They express the same meaning, as in

"I have a flight, so I have to/ ought to/ need to/ must/ should wake up at six in order to make it to the airport on time".


Have to and must have exactly the same meaning, ought to and need to have a bit more of a voluntary feeling. - I ought to clean my house today, but maybe I will, maybe I won't, versus - I must clean my house today, my mother-in-law is coming for dinner.


What is the purpose of "Me" in this sentence here?


Please read what rspreng says above about reflexive pronouns and verbs. Also, the me is used because it stands for 'myself' which is not translated into English. Some verbs in English lost there reflexiveness a long time ago, but they can still be reflexive in Spanish. despertar(se) in this model sentence means to wake oneself up. A lot of experts call these type of verbs pronominal instead of reflective because there are cases were the reflective/pronominal verb doesn't reflect back on oneself.

I don't know if you are familiar with this subject or not, but if you aren't you may do a internet search and there is a massive amount of material out there.


What is the difference between 'at 6' and 'by 6' other than at being exact. In English they are used interchangeably (or at least I do) as I have never actually ever had to wake up at the exact moment. The time is usually the latest time you have to be up before, therefore the use of the word 'by' rather than 'at'.


I would never wake by 6 naturally, so I must use an alarm that is set to wake me at six. "By" conveys that there is an open expanse time in which you might already have woken. "At" conveys that you were (almost certainly) asleep during that expanse.

I love this type of nuance that can be conveyed in very very tiny words. :-D


In the exercise that was presented to me right before this one, there was a vast amount of comments that said that if one uses "tener que," then one cannot use object pronouns. However, this one uses the "me" pronoun. Does anyone have any thoughts?


The verb in this DL sentence is using a reflexive pronoun which is not an object pronoun. The verb is despertarse and the action has to be done to the subject (yo).


I put " I have to awake at six". and was marked wrong. Perhaps it should be "I have to awaken at six".


6:00 should be accepted!!


Anyone want to comment on whether nor not deber is equally as good a verb here as tener + que. Would it be debo que, I haven't used the verb deber yet.


Have read all your comments - so why is "must " a suggested translation of " me tengo que"? The difference is insignificant in English since both indicate compulsion.


What is the difference between "Me tengo que..." and "Yo tengo que..." as to its use in this sentence?


you have to use the reflexive me


Your action is directed toward yourself, not another person, when there is no reflexive "me" in the sentence.


Would it still be the same if I delete the Me and it will just be Tengo Que? it still means "I have to" right?


Why is 'que' there?


See verb: despertarse


i don't know why says "I have to wake up to the six" or even at best "I have to wake up to the six" can anybody help me with that


Are you talking about the Spanish? Because Ï have to wake up TO THE six is definitely not good English. Spanish requires the use of an article before the hour in constructions like this, English doesn't (and as a matter of fact, disallows it.) "A"can mean to, but in this case, it also means at, since that is the preposition we use in English. When it comes to prepositions, and to a lesser extent use of articles, there really is little or no one to one correspondence between any two languages. Even Portuguese and Spanish have differences, and they are about as close as you can come, and still have two different languages.


When expressing time in Spanish, the hour is always preceded by the feminine articles "la" (only used for one) or las (used for the rest of the hours). "Es la una" = It's one (o'clock). "Son las dos" = It's two (o'clock) and so on.


Por que não aceitam a hora assim 6:00?


"I have to wake up BY 6", – marked as wrong. If "a" here cannot be translated into "by", then how do you say that in Spanish?


"Me tengo que despertar por seis" or "Tengo que despertarme por seis."


I hope he means 6PM for his sake.

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