"I do not speak Swedish."
Translation:Jag talar inte svenska.
Most of them do. The exceptions tend to be languages that are spoken far away like khmer, hindi, bengali, punjabi and such. (I'm not translating them here, I'm sure you recognize them :) )
Some have two versions, like amarinja which is sometimes called amhariska, mandarin (also known as kinesiska) and thai, sometimes known as thailändska
I'm one of them – people with green rings in the forums are either that or forum moderators. See all mods for the Swedish course here: http://incubator.duolingo.com/courses/sv/en/status – there are 6 of us.
I guess the literal translation is "I speak not Swedish", however I'm curious is the "do" is implied when one says "talar" or when one says "inte", so it's like, "I (do) speak not Swedish", or if it's "I speak (do) not Swedish". I hope this makes sense, but I also can rationalize & memorize it better that way.
Could somebody clarify my question above, like, where the "do" is implied with what word?
However, I do not speak, spoken backwards, is "I speak not" and the "do" is implied when we say not, so it's almost an old English structure. That's how I can remember this. I hope this helps somebody, and I hope my question is answered so we can further get to the bottom of this mystery.