"I do not speak Swedish."
Translation:Jag talar inte svenska.
Yeah... I know that feeling. Apparently kan comes from the verb kunna, to know. So Jag kan inte svenska means I do not know Swedish
and i can't. imagine my surprise learning this entirely new way to construct such a clause as a correction.
The thing I am utterly confused about with this one is why does "talar" come before "inte"? it would be nice if the notes of the beginning of the lesson or even some notes at the bottom of the page of the questions would explain things like this.
I think of it as if it were said, "I speak not [language]." It's an archaic way of saying it in English, but correct nonetheless, and it makes it easier for me to remember.
Is there a "ska" in every noun that is a language name? Svenska, Engelska and so on, is it the case?
Most of them do. The exceptions tend to be languages that are spoken far away like khmer, hindi, bengali, punjabi and such. (I'm not translating them here, I'm sure you recognize them :) )
Some have two versions, like amarinja which is sometimes called amhariska, mandarin (also known as kinesiska) and thai, sometimes known as thailändska
I'm one of them – people with green rings in the forums are either that or forum moderators. See all mods for the Swedish course here: http://incubator.duolingo.com/courses/sv/en/status – there are 6 of us.
I couldn't find a clear answer when I searched on line in regards to Irish. I saw Irländskt, Irländska, Irländsk. I would assume the last two refer to the Irish language and the first as an adjective
irländska refers to the language or to an Irishwoman, but it is also a form of the adjective. The other two are just forms of the adjective.
I thought the answer is: jag kan ej tala svenska?
If both are correct, and still used, why use one over the other?
"Ej" is an older and rarely used synonym of "inte". It's very formal and mostly used on signs telling you what not to do.
If we translate this literally, does it become "I speak not Swedish" ? Does this apply to any verb as well?
Yup. We don't need to rewrite sentences with do as they do in English to create negated sentences and questions.
I heard this also once as "Jag pratar svenska" whats the difference between pratar and svenska?
I guess the literal translation is "I speak not Swedish", however I'm curious is the "do" is implied when one says "talar" or when one says "inte", so it's like, "I (do) speak not Swedish", or if it's "I speak (do) not Swedish". I hope this makes sense, but I also can rationalize & memorize it better that way.
Could somebody clarify my question above, like, where the "do" is implied with what word?
However, I do not speak, spoken backwards, is "I speak not" and the "do" is implied when we say not, so it's almost an old English structure. That's how I can remember this. I hope this helps somebody, and I hope my question is answered so we can further get to the bottom of this mystery.
Swedish doesnt have an equivalent of "do". You could say "kan" but that means to know something
Yes, exactly. It's easier to see if we rewrite the English phrase to the less idiomatic "I speak not English" - then you have the same constituents.
It's because the English word "Swedish" has several meanings. It can be either the language, or the adjective. And these translate somewhat differently into Swedish.
When I was in swedish class, based in Lund, Sweden, they taught me it's Jag talar inte svenska.'
Why use the version that's not so common at all? that is very confusing because you tell me it's wrong, but its really not?
Jag talar inte svenska is the default translation, but there's a need to accept other correct translations as well. Unfortunately, Duolingo doesn't always show you the default.
Says "Jag kan ej tala svenska." is correct
Can I say like Jag inte prata/talar Svenska
You can say Jag pratar/talar inte svenska, but the verb needs to be second and names of languages are not capitalised.