1. Forum
  2. >
  3. Topic: Swedish
  4. >
  5. "Hon har sin fina klänning på…

"Hon har sin fina klänning sig."

Translation:She is wearing her nice dress.

November 17, 2014



Would Hon har på sig sin fina klänning also be grammatically correct?


Absolutely. Both word orders work and there's no difference in meaning.


Is one of those two word orders used more often in modern Sweden? Or are both common?


Both are common.


Which of the two is more common in everyday conversation?


No idea. Both are perfectly common.


Why is it fina and not fin? isnt fina only for a plural noun? and also, can you say, hon har på sig sin fina klänning?


Adjectives like "fin" become plural in a sentence with a possessive like "sin or hans or hennes"


Adjectives like "fin" become plural - could you please specify other ones which are like "fin" and maybe clarify why they become plurar?



Most adjectives have the same form in the plural and definite forms. In this case, we need the definite form because it's possessive.


En ny bil Min nya bil It took me ages to learn that with possession adjektives become defined


Might "She wears her nice dress" also be possible?


Yes, this should also work!


Why not her best dress?


Well, the Swedish sentence only says it looks good, not that it's her best one.


Why not, she has a nice dress on?


That's also accepted.


Can someone breakdown this sentence so that i can under better?


Don't know if you still need this, but at least for others in the future: 1) Hon = She

2) har på sig = wears/is wearing (think literally "has on oneself"). You can write the clothing being worn either between "har" and "på" or after the whole thing. It makes no difference.

3) sin fina klänning = her nice dress. "Sin" is the reflexive "her," referring to the she from the start of the sentence. "Hennes" would mean "her" referring to some other woman. We use the definite form "fina" (indefinite for an en-word like klänning would be "fin") in possesive cases like this where the adjective is before the noun. "Her dress is nice" would use the indefinite: "Hennes klänning är fin." If we said "the nice dress" it would also be the definite adjective and then dress would need to be definite too: "den fina klänningen."


What is role of "sin" here? Isn't it clear that dress belongs to her if she is wearing it? Why to add possessive pronoun here? Can i say it without it? Just "Hon har en fin klänning på sig"?


You could use that and other constructions, but it would change the meaning - e.g. hon har en fin klänning på sig = she's wearing a nice dress.

The "use the definite instead of a possessive" thing doesn't really work as soon as you have an adjective involved, because when you do, you also need either an article or a possessive pronoun. Hence, you could say en fin klänning or den fina klänningen, but neither would mean "her".


People can wear clothes that are owned by someone else. Though regardless, whether or not you'd say this sentence in English (I would in some circumstances), the whole point of Duolingo is to teach a language not just a list of useful sentences to repeat.


Of course they can, but Swedish frequently uses a definite in lieu of a possessive if can be assumed that the thing belongs to themselves. It's a perfectly legitimate question.

I don't understand why you'd add the latter part. It was just a question of how to use the language, not a complaint about the course.


I was basically responding to the sentence, "Isn't it clear that dress belongs to her if she is wearing it?" The answer to this question is no, so indicating that the dress belongs to her isn't necessarily unreasonable or redundant.

Given the way the question was asked, I interpreted that to mean Norravargen also wouldn't say this sentence this way in English (the question I just quoted applies to both English and Swedish). I see this issue brought up from time to time, where people question when they'd ever need to say a certain phrase learned here. Maybe I misinterpreted.


I get that, but Swedish actually isn't as clear-cut - I'm actually leaning towards that the definite can be defaulted to instead of the possessive unless there's a reason to believe otherwise here.

That's fair enough, and I know exactly what I mean, I just really don't interpret the post the same way. :)


Can 'nizza' be substituted for 'fina?' Does 'fin' also mean 'beautiful?'


I'm guessing you looked up "nice" in an older dictionary? Nizza is the older Swedish name for the French city of Nice. :)

fin can also be "beautiful", and we accept nice / pretty / beautiful / fine here. Generally, though, "beautiful" corresponds best to vacker and "pretty" best to söt.


Why is "Hon har sin fina klänning på sig" okay here, but in the other exercise "Vi har varma kläder på oss" is not accepted, but only "Vi har på oss varma kläder"?


We actually do accept vi har varma kläder på oss in that sentence - I just checked.


Why didnt "She has her nice clothes on" work? That's how most people say it where im from in scotland


A dress is much more specific than "clothes". If she has nice clothes on, it could just as well be trousers and a blouse, for instance.

Learn Swedish in just 5 minutes a day. For free.