"She speaks no English" is not a correct translation for "Hon talar inte engelska" since this sentence could mean two things.
Either "she" can't speak English, or she is simply not speaking English at the moment. Since it could be interpreted in both ways we only accept "She does not speak English".
"Hon talar ingen engelska" would be a perfect translation for "She speaks no English".
A fine point, but as a native British English speaker, I would say that 'She speaks no English' and 'She does not speak English' are interchangeable in common usage. If wishing to convey that she is not speaking English at the moment, 'She is not speaking (in) English' would be used.
Sorry but this is looking at it backwards. "She speaks no English" is one of the (several) correct translations of this Swedish sentence, and should be accepted. The fact that there are one or several other, and perhaps better ways of expressing that English in Swedish is not a reason do disallow the answer. It's particularly inappropriate since we are at such an early stage, and "ingen" has not been introduced yet.
But allowing "She speaks no English" gives the misleading impression that this is a good translation of this phrase, which it isn't. We are very liberal when it comes to translations where there are no "perfect" translations. But in this case "Hon talar inte engelska" and "She does not speak English" are perfect translations. Therefore, we are not liberal.
You say that ...the fact that one or several other, and perhaps better ways of expressing that English in Swedish.... But this does not really hold either. If we listen to the radio and I ask Does she speak English? you wouldn't answer She speaks no English.
The fact that "ingen" has not yet been introduced does not change anything as we always want to teach the best way of saying something.
Well I disagree that it gives the impression that the translation is good (which I would not claim), just that it is good enough, given the stage we are at. And arguments involving an invented context for the translation of a question for which for which there is none are not valid. Duolingo is littered with examples of less-than-optimal answers being accepted even where 'perfect' translations exist. Forgive me being blunt, I am very grateful that this course exists and cognizant of the effort expended by you and others. And I am also closer to agreeing with you than my reply would suggest :)
I think this is making things a bit too complicated. Since we've got a situation where the two languages actually correspond pretty perfectly: "Hon talar inte svenska" = "She does not speak/is not speaking Swedish", and "Hon talar ingen svenska" = "She speaks no Swedish" there's no need to mix these two expressions.
It is always difficult in cases like these and we have discussed it in the team. Our conclusion was that the translation isn't "good enough" and that it therefore should not be accepted. Everybody will of course not agree on this, but we have to make decisions and stick to them.
I know that there are loads of bad accepted answers on Duo, but that does not mean that we should be lazy and give in.
Well since we are beating this to death, I would like to point out that the accepted translation "She does not speak English." means that she peaks NO English. At least as an American speaks it. It never means that she is capable but is not speaking it at the moment. If you used it that way it would immediately mark you as a non-native speaker (in the U.S. and in my opinion). For that we must say "She is not speaking English." (present tense) or "She was not speaking English." (past tense). This leaves unsaid whether she is capable of speaking English or not. But by all the arguments put forth so far "She speaks no English." and "She does not speak English." are suffering the same meaning. If the Swedish is actually ambiguous on this point so that the phrase can mean either then we should look for a translation which has the same ambiguity or we should accept both meanings (in my opinion).
And other users, please don't keep downvoting this when it's already at the bottom of the page! A lot of our users aren't native speakers of English and I think we might as well have explanations about things in English grammar too. Why not learn two languages at the same time?
ingen is for en words, inget for ett words, and inga for plural, regardless of gender.
ingen bok 'no book', inget hus 'no house', inga barn 'no children'.
In a normal Swedish sentence (a main clause that is not a question) the verb always comes in second place, and since it would be odd to start a sentence with inte, it will come after the verb. But in subclauses, inte goes before the verb.
tala is the infinitive, but talar is present tense (used for all persons: jag talar, du talar, hon talar …). The infinitive is not used directly with a subject. It is either used with another verb, like jag tycker om att läsa 'I like to read' (att läsa/to read are infinitives) or to speak about the verb action itself: det är roligt att läsa 'it is fun to read'.
The stressed syllable in engelska is the first, e. Generally Swedish nouns have the stress on the first or second to last syllable, (and in compound words, secondary stress on the other part of the word) but there is no hard and fast rule. If it's on the last, the word is usually a (French) loan word.
Blehg has made some very helpful videos about Swedish pronunciation that you may want to check out: https://www.duolingo.com/comment/6502614