"The woman does not speak English."
Translation:Kvinnan talar inte engelska.
Maybe I am missing something but how does inte work? I know 'Kvinnan talar engelska' would be the woman speaks English so if I throw in inte it makes it she DOESNT.. so does inte represent 'does not' for verbs? Tack!
Yes. 'Inte' negates verbs when placed after them. 'Does' (and do) as auxiliary doesn't have a counterpart in Swedish.
Not quite. Swedish is more similar to English than to German in this case.
In most cases, inte corresponds to not and ingen/inget/inga to no. German kein is like ingen/inget/inga and no, because it negates a noun, not a verb, and nicht is like inte and not. But they use nicht much less in German and prefer kein in many cases where we prefer to negate the verb instead of the noun.
In Swedish, it is possible to say both Kvinnan talar inte engelska 'The woman does not speak English' and Kvinnan talar ingen engelska 'The woman speaks no English' just like in English, and with the same slight difference in meaning between the two.
"Kvinnan "pratar" inte engelska." would be better in this case seeing as (from what I understand) pratar is speak whereas talar is talk, right? Or can they be interchanged for eachother in any scenario?
No, the other way around. Tala/speak and prata/talk. They're interchangeable in some contexts, but generally languages are spoken, not talked.
Thanks for clearing that up Zmrzlina. Not sure how I got the two mixed up, but now I know and knowing is half the battle!
"på" is used when describing speaking in a specific language, correct?
For example, "talar på svenska" is like the English, "speak in Swedish"? When exactly do we use "på" with regard to languages?
The hover over menu shows "gör" as a translation of does, but it isn't in this phrase. When would gör be used?
"Gör" means "do" in the most basic sense of the word. So, "What are you doing?" Would be "Vad gör du?" Or "He's doing it." would be "Han gör det." It would not be used in this situation because there is only one present tense of a verb in Swedish. "Han talar." Can translate to "He talks." or "He is talking." or "He does talk."
So, to this translation I entered "kvinnan talar inte engelska" and was told the proper translation is "kvinnan talar ej engelska." I looked into this a (very) little bit, and it looks like the provided sentence actually translates to "the woman speaks no Swedish." Is this accurate? Is there some kind of nuance I'm not understanding? I guess I'm particularly confused because that's not a grammatical construction that has come up yet. Thank you!
"Talar inte" should certainly be "does(do) not speak" apart from "Talar inget(ingen)" not sure about these two whether we use en or ett in this case
Okay, I said "Kvinnan kan inte prata Engelska", which I guess isn't perfect, but is understandable, right?
Do you know that if you don't know the answer of a question, just hover your mouse/cursor over the word you don't know and you will get the meaning of that word