"The woman does not speak English."
Translation:Kvinnan talar inte engelska.
Not quite. Swedish is more similar to English than to German in this case.
In most cases, inte corresponds to not and ingen/inget/inga to no. German kein is like ingen/inget/inga and no, because it negates a noun, not a verb, and nicht is like inte and not. But they use nicht much less in German and prefer kein in many cases where we prefer to negate the verb instead of the noun.
In Swedish, it is possible to say both Kvinnan talar inte engelska 'The woman does not speak English' and Kvinnan talar ingen engelska 'The woman speaks no English' just like in English, and with the same slight difference in meaning between the two.
I have this doubt:
Between "talar" or "pratar", which of these swedish words does it translate "speak" to English better?
I think that is "talar", but I'm not sure.
I've noted that you and "Delantiel" always make good explanations.
Could you help me?!??
"Gör" means "do" in the most basic sense of the word. So, "What are you doing?" Would be "Vad gör du?" Or "He's doing it." would be "Han gör det." It would not be used in this situation because there is only one present tense of a verb in Swedish. "Han talar." Can translate to "He talks." or "He is talking." or "He does talk."
So, to this translation I entered "kvinnan talar inte engelska" and was told the proper translation is "kvinnan talar ej engelska." I looked into this a (very) little bit, and it looks like the provided sentence actually translates to "the woman speaks no Swedish." Is this accurate? Is there some kind of nuance I'm not understanding? I guess I'm particularly confused because that's not a grammatical construction that has come up yet. Thank you!