"Mannen har socker och kaffe."

Translation:The man has sugar and coffee.

November 18, 2014

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To the Swedes in the room, does the pronunciation of 'socker' sound right here? Pronunciation with 'sh' sound at the beginning seems strange.


It is because of the R + S sound.


So what would the man has sugar in his coffee or the man has coffee with sugar translate to?


The man has sugar in his coffee = mannen har socker i kaffet/sitt kaffe.

The man has coffee with sugar = Mannen har kaffe med socker

Do note though that "har" in Swedish can not mean to order or to eat as in wording an order at a restaurant "the man has a coffee".


once again, the literal translation "the man has sugar and coffee", I guess you don't really eat sugar on its own, so I won't report this one. But if you're thinking in terms of what a person "has" (i.e. in their shopping bag)


So the "man is having" is not correct? I am a bit confused as present tense can be both present continuous and present simple tense in English. I wrote "the man is having sugar and coffee" and I got a wrong answer..


Yes, is having is not correct here – the man in the Swedish sentence only has the things, as mattheworb said, in his shopping bag for instance. We don't use har to mean 'eat or drink'.


Well "is having" as in "is consuming" is incorrect as you say, but "is having" as a slightly odd English way of saying "has" would be correct wouldn't you say Arnauti? Like "is running" and "runs" for "springer".


Vill du ha lite kaffe med ditt socker?


Is the inflection important? Do you have to say the words with the same tone to be better understood?


As always, tone and stress are important to sound natural. But just like English, stress shifts depending on what you emphasize. With time, practice and patience, it should come naturally.


Thanks! I see what you mean.


You used the wrong word. The man has got sugar and coffee.


Join my club the George's Club


I just got it wrong because autocorrect

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