Surely it is OK to have a translation as 'is this bus for Madrid? I mean, it is not going to go to Madrid and not stop? Hardly some little village! Is the key word 'en'. ?
At first sight it is a confusing phrase. Look for the verb...
The conjugated verb is: "para", from the verb "parar", which means "to stop". It looks like the preposition "para" (for), but it isn't. So the core of this phrase is "¿este autobús para?" = "this bus stops?". Then all that is left is the adverbial clause: "en Madrid", which of course means: "in Madrid"
So that makes the translation: "Does this bus stop in Madrid?"
Thanks,, I see it now. Funny how it really should be obvious but I missed it. Just looking at para as 'for'!
I think it is just coincidental the 'is this bus for Madrid' makes the same sense as 'does this bus stop in Madrid'. I never even thought of the verb 'parar'! So I genuinely learned something new. Thank you duolingo!
It's an accurate enough translation, but the computer can't have every possible paraphrased translation saved.
I really don't like the male voice they use. Madrid sounds like "Madriiil"
The guy always pronounces the "D"s in a manner that confuses, but I don't know if it's accurate or not. My guess is it's probably more of a Spain thing than Latin American.
The literal translation this autobus stops in Madrid? is acceptable. One can make make a question of a statement with inflection only.
What is the difference does this bus stop in Madrid or is this the bus that stops in Madrid?