"They did not have a response."
Translation:Ellos no tuvieron una respuesta.
Imperfect (tenian, they had) is used when we want to express a situation or repetitive action that happened in the past, without reference to the start or the end of the action/situation. Preterite (tuvieron) refers to a single completed action. With some verbs, like Tener, Saber and Conocer, the meaning of the word also changes:
Teníamos una idea = They HAD an idea
Tuvieron una idea = They GOT an idea
Sabía su dirección = I knew his address
Supe su direccíon = I found out his address
Conocías a Juan = You knew Juan
Conociste a Juan = You met Juan
Thank you so much! This is a great answer... even though it kinda hurts my brain.
They both are in the past but "tenía" means I/he/she/him/her/you(formal) had (over a course of time). The "they" form is "tenían". Tuvieron means they had (in one specific incidence in time).
Got to love that pretérito. What a leap from tener to tuvieron! Can't repuesta also be "answer"?
Ninguna means any/none, or "They did not have any response"/"They had no response." While a valid sentence, it is not a direct translation of the English sentence.
I agree that it is not a direct translation of what is written (which might be important) - but if it was something I ordinarily would say in English, but I wanted to communicate the same thing in Spanish ... I might be inclined to think ninguna (or the correct Spanish version) might be on track (and for us learning Spanish might be a profitable acceptable answer).
That is to say that in English "They did not have any response" would not be a fluid choice of words - and to communicate the same thing I would ordinarily say "They did not have a response".
Okay look I could have swore tener changed meaning in the preterite. How is ellos no teni'an not correct? (' means accent mark) It's a different meaning saying ellos no tuvieron una repuesta is it not? I don't understand why duolingo is teaching like this.