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"They did not have a response."

Translation:Ellos no tuvieron una respuesta.

5 years ago

20 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/Stenzcas

Whats the difference betuneen ténia and tuvieron?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MateoHallam

Imperfect (tenian, they had) is used when we want to express a situation or repetitive action that happened in the past, without reference to the start or the end of the action/situation. Preterite (tuvieron) refers to a single completed action. With some verbs, like Tener, Saber and Conocer, the meaning of the word also changes:

Teníamos una idea = They HAD an idea

Tuvieron una idea = They GOT an idea

.............

Sabía su dirección = I knew his address

Supe su direccíon = I found out his address

............

Conocías a Juan = You knew Juan

Conociste a Juan = You met Juan

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/LewisH65
LewisH65
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Thank you so much! This is a great answer... even though it kinda hurts my brain.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/kayhard

Thx much

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Johnny-jay

They both are in the past but "tenía" means I/he/she/him/her/you(formal) had (over a course of time). The "they" form is "tenían". Tuvieron means they had (in one specific incidence in time).

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/NotMarkMoses

FFS everyone knows you don't always need the personal pronoun

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Talca
Talca
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Got to love that pretérito. What a leap from tener to tuvieron! Can't repuesta also be "answer"?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/laguera25
laguera25
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Why can I not use "ninguna" here?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/piccolute74
piccolute74
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Ninguna means any/none, or "They did not have any response"/"They had no response." While a valid sentence, it is not a direct translation of the English sentence.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AussieFruitNinja
AussieFruitNinja
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I agree that it is not a direct translation of what is written (which might be important) - but if it was something I ordinarily would say in English, but I wanted to communicate the same thing in Spanish ... I might be inclined to think ninguna (or the correct Spanish version) might be on track (and for us learning Spanish might be a profitable acceptable answer).

That is to say that in English "They did not have any response" would not be a fluid choice of words - and to communicate the same thing I would ordinarily say "They did not have a response".

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JAMESTOMLI2

why not "ninguna respuesta"?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/nerulhij

why tuvieron and not tienen?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/LewisH65
LewisH65
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Past tense.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/nerulhij

oh, thanks

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/N4th4nEternal

Okay look I could have swore tener changed meaning in the preterite. How is ellos no teni'an not correct? (' means accent mark) It's a different meaning saying ellos no tuvieron una repuesta is it not? I don't understand why duolingo is teaching like this.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/RobChristiansen

ellos hice no tienen un repuesta - works too

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/samuel.rho

thanks again for suggesting the wrong word

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Stenzcas

Whats the difference betuneen ténia and tuvieron?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Stenzcas

Whats the difference betuneen ténia and tuvieron?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/errant1
errant1
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What.

4 years ago