"We eat the rice."
Translation:Ithimid an rís.
It can be either ithimid or itheann muid. The first is the synthetic form and is used by Munster Irish (which also uses other synthetic formsl and the standard. The other is the analytic and is used by the other dialects
Are the different constructs mutually intelligible across different regions? If so, does one just sound peculiar or clumsy in certain regions or among certain groups of native speakers?
The different dialects (namely Ulster, Munster, and Connaught Irish) have some different words from one another (e.g. "sionnach", "madra rua", and "mada rua" all mean "fox"). There is also quite a lot of variation in pronunciation (e.g. "raibh", which means "was/were" can be pronounced as "rev" or "row"[to rhyme with now].) This can prove confusing to the non-fluent listener, yes, as any Irish student will tell you, having attempted "listening exercises" on tape/CD at school! If you think about it though, there are many dialects of sorts in English too (In Ireland alone there are Cork, Donegal, Midlands, Galway, North Dublin, South Dublin, Belfast...) - all with unique expressions and phrases and pronunciations, albeit less extreme than As Gaeilge. The key to (eventually) understanding the different Irish dialects is to listen and practice, practice, practice! TG4 and Radio na Gaeltachta are Irish language TV and radio stations; maybe they'll prove helpful to some people... I hope some of this is useful!
why is na ris not acceptable? I would think that rice would be plural not singular.
In my view, “the rice” in this sentence is a mass noun rather than a plural noun, so an rís is an appropriate translation.
Do they speak Irish in parts of Scotland, if so, which dialect/s do they use?
They don't speak Irish, they speak Scots Gaelic. I haven't had many encounters so I'm not sure if the two are mutually intelligible, but I do know that I can understand Scots Gaelic children's TV shows :), so they would be similar enough. I'd assume Scots Gaelic would have its own dialects.
Scots Gaelic evolved from Irish Gaelic - and the word "Scotland" comes from Celtic times and means "land of the Irish". they are very similar and I would say mutually intelligible for sure!
Well, to be more specific; before the Normans invaded Scotland under Malcolm II and gradually removed all traces of Celtic culture from the royal court, the Picts had spent the last 3 centuries under the rule of Irishmen from the west coast of Scotland, and they were specifically called Scots, so the Anglo-saxons referred to this land as 'Land of the Scots", and there was never a distict enough court culture to necessitate any change to the name by common people