Because of ”de där”. ”Där” literally means ”there”, so it’s like ”the ones over there; those” as opposed to ”de här” = ”the ones here; these”.
Why does it sound like she is saying dom dar instead of de dar like it is looks like it should? Is that a short form that we should just know?
From what I've gathered from other discussions, "de" is just pronounced "dom." No short forms or anything, just not phonetic.
Why isn't it böcker v böckerna? Doesn't this translate to "those the books are mine? "
It would seem that the de/t där/här phrases are only used with definites, while dessa, denna, etc. are used with indefinites.
Think you have to follow den/det/de där with a definite form so you need a plural definite if more than 1. Learning myself so that may not be right.