"Kvinnan sover hos mannen."
Translation:The woman is sleeping at the man's place.
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"Hos" is a cognate to the word "house", and chez is derived from Latin "casa" with the same meaning! Easier to memorise.
If you speak in a Portuguese from Brazil, in European Portuguese (Portugal, which is a much more extended vocabulary and completed) you would said: Conhecer-se.
In Brazilian Portuguese "Se conhecer" have one meaning, in European Portuguese "Se conhecer" have a different meaning from "Conhecer-se".
I would recommend you to look for some Portuguese European as I believe you're gonna enjoy it a lot, there's loads of new words and meaning that you will find pretty interesting and curious and it will be even easier for you to understand the language. Have a look :)
I put this comment here because I've found pretty interesting the way you connect words between languages and you've presented us with a good but tricky example from my native language and as being a Portuguese from Portugal. (I know that this has nothing to do with Swedish anyway)
Excellent explanation of "hos" and "med"( which, btw, sounds like the German "mit", meaning "with".) I am discovering that the more languages I study, the clearer the connections between languages.....and so it really IS easier to learn more languages! (Except Irish. I can't get my head around that language at all.....maybe I will just speak English with an Irish accent instead...lol.)
vid is used to locate one thing in relation to another. The first thing is generally something smaller and moveable while the second thing is typically a 'landmark' – something big and immobile. A very good example would be Jag bor vid floden 'I live by the river' – the river is a 'landmark'. Or like, Jag är vid statyn 'I am by the statue' – but it doesn't work so well for two people.
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It's great that "chez" is the French equivalent of "hos", I don't have to wrap my head around it again.
I would really like some literate English native speaker to explain to me the following pls: (1) should there be an article in this case and (2) is it an unacceptable mistake if the article is skipped? I always get a 'wrong answer' with this exercise, as i always use '.... at man's place'. That is because, if i remember correctly, I was thaught about articles and possession pronouns that 'man's' can be substituted with 'his' and you would never use an article in such construction, like '..at ThE his place'. So why at THE man's place, instead of 'at man's place'? What am i missing here? Sorry for the long remark but i am really tired of getting the same mistake over and over again and trying to fight with my experience, etc