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  5. "It is his tea."

"It is his tea."

Translation:Det är hans te.

November 23, 2014

21 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/CatalystCanary

Please can you explain why one can't say det ar sitt/ sin te? What is the difference between sitt/sin and hans? Is it that han is natural gender (his) and sitt/sin is neuter (its)? Am I far off?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/chl03k

I'm new to learning Swedish, but as far as I know, sitt/sin can mean his, her, its, or their, but it is only used to refer back to the subject of the sentence if it defines who is possessing the object. Since the subject in this sentence does not tell who he is, you would use hans.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Zmrzlina

And that's perfectly right. Have a dose of moderator approval and a couple of lingots! ;)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Aly522743

But this sentence does not let us know if it is referring back to the subject or not! So it's anybody's guess if it's "hans" or "sitt". But it marked "sitt" as incorrect. Confusing!


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/kmoriley

Sitt is reflexive. So you would you use in a sentence like: Han har sitt te. Because his refers to the subject. You use hans/hennes when it doesn't. So this case we are referring to the tea, so we need to use a nonreflexive pronoun to indicate that it is his. Unless I have misunderstood the difference...


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/JosephCapo1

That is so confusing!


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Sootsprite28

On the off chance that you haven't found an answer to your question yet; hans/hennes is used when the object of the sentence does NOT belong to the subject. For example, if the sentence were to say, "I drink his tea", then "Jag dricker hans te" would be correct, because the object (tea/te) doesn't belong to the subject (I/jag) . Sin/sitt/sina is used when the subject of the sentence owns the object. So, if the sentence had been something like "He drinks his tea", then the correct translation would be "Han dricker sitt te" because the tea actually belongs to him. I hope this made some sense :)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/GaelicGirl2

why is "det är sin te" incorrect? It states nowhere that the tea is someone elses, so sin (his own tea) should be accepted...

nvm, I guess te is an -et word, so it should be "sitt te" I guess.

But I do feel it should be shown as an correct answer aswell, otherwise you might get the wrong idea


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Jaroslavas847998

Why "Det är honom te" can not be used?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/DemaNtura

I believe honom means him, hans means his.

"Jag tycker om honom" (I like him).

"Det är hans te" (It is his tea).


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/ekufi

"De är hans te" is close but no cigar. What's the difference between de and det in this case?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Lundgren8

”Det” means ”it” and ”de” means ”they”.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/seventwelve81

det vs den - what's the difference?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Lundgren8

Den is used for en-words, and det for ett-words.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/DonAriff

But te is an en-word right, then why is it det?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/tu.8zPhLD72zzoZN

Then why did I see "eftermiddagsteet" on this page. http://en.bab.la/dictionary/english-swedish/tea

In "en kopp te", the article "en" is for "kopp".


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/matthew583808

Not honoms here?, as its specifying something of his?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/DebbieRose8

My sentence is exactly like the answer yet you marked it incorrect.

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