"It is his tea."
Translation:Det är hans te.
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I'm new to learning Swedish, but as far as I know, sitt/sin can mean his, her, its, or their, but it is only used to refer back to the subject of the sentence if it defines who is possessing the object. Since the subject in this sentence does not tell who he is, you would use hans.
Sitt is reflexive. So you would you use in a sentence like: Han har sitt te. Because his refers to the subject. You use hans/hennes when it doesn't. So this case we are referring to the tea, so we need to use a nonreflexive pronoun to indicate that it is his. Unless I have misunderstood the difference...
On the off chance that you haven't found an answer to your question yet; hans/hennes is used when the object of the sentence does NOT belong to the subject. For example, if the sentence were to say, "I drink his tea", then "Jag dricker hans te" would be correct, because the object (tea/te) doesn't belong to the subject (I/jag) . Sin/sitt/sina is used when the subject of the sentence owns the object. So, if the sentence had been something like "He drinks his tea", then the correct translation would be "Han dricker sitt te" because the tea actually belongs to him. I hope this made some sense :)
why is "det är sin te" incorrect? It states nowhere that the tea is someone elses, so sin (his own tea) should be accepted...
nvm, I guess te is an -et word, so it should be "sitt te" I guess.
But I do feel it should be shown as an correct answer aswell, otherwise you might get the wrong idea