Does this mean both the man's book (that he owns), and the man's book (that he wrote)?
So a general rule of thumb is that adding an s will make any noun a possessive?
I wrote, "The woman reads the man's book," and I'm not sure why this is wrong. I simply put 'reads' to save typing out 'is reading'. I was under the impression that läste was the past tense form of 'to read', so shouldn't, 'The woman read the man's book' be 'Kvinnorna läste mannens bok'?
Have I got terribly mixed up somewhere, or is there a mistake?
"The woman" is the problem. "Kvinnorna" means "The women". If it was "The woman" it would have been "Kvinnan".
I think it must be (s) after the verb read because it is simple present tense
The -s form is only used for the singular third person ('he', 'she', or 'it'). But here we're talking about more than one woman. So
The women read … or The women are reading … = plural women
The woman reads … or The woman is reading … = one woman.
I can't get this correctly. I have a started sentence written that I have to complete. The last words I have to complete it are given : the - man - 's - book But that doesn't work. It's always wrong, also when I try it Yoda style.
I wrote ' the women read the husband's book" how should i know the difference
We only really use man if you're talking about a specific person in regards to their husband. For instance, hon pratar med sin man, or min man äter ost.
For a sentence like the one in this example, no Swede would ever think "husband" was meant.
We do accept "are reading", yes. It can't be "is" because "women" is the plural form.
What is the difference/how do I tell the difference between "the women reads the man's book" and the past tence of "the women reas the mans book" ?
The present is läser and the past is läste. Note that "women" is a plural form, so you need "read" and not "reads".