I've seen the word in Costa Rica numerous times in the last two months (since I learned the word, in other words). Just because you haven't seen it in one part of the Spanish-speaking world doesn't mean that nobody has seen it in any part. Then again, I get the feeling that Costa Rica speaks a weird variety of Spanish, especially by Latin American standards.
Yes, and yet sandwich is definitely borrowed from English, so I would like to know the other alternatives that I might not recognize. I will tell you that I think we all learned a lot of alternatives in this conversation that we would not have learned if they had used sandwich.
Just visited Costa Rica. "El sándwich" was on a lot of signs. No "emperadado" to be seen anywhere. Also, my daughter's teacher last year was Cuban. When she asked "Puedo tener un emparedado, por favor" to show off her DuoLingo studying, her maestra told her to just use "sándwich" because it is more common.
I already know the word sandwich, so “sándwich” would have been a bit too easy. We can come across that easily enough. Are you saying that other alternative words are not being accepted? Have you tried reporting them?
There are many kinds of sandwiches in English too. “Sub” or “submarine”, “club sandwich”, “panini” (You realize that in Italian that is not the specialized sandwich that it is in the US. It is their general word for sandwich.), “gyro” (The Greek version is rather special here too.), “Double decker”.....
The “bocadillo” tends to be made in a baguette or similar bread.
The “emparedado” has ham and something added to that. That does seem a bit specific, but maybe in the Caribbean or Central America it may be less specific - somewhere - wherever it is actually used. I wonder what a Cuban sandwich is called in Cuba and not for tourists.. Do you think that the widespread use of sandwich is due to a lot of tourists?
Apparently, in this negative command (which triggers the subjunctive mood), the verb pagar is spelled (pagues) because if the -es suffix were appended onto pag- then the g in pagar would be pronounced totally differently (like an h). So it is really to preserve the correct pronunciation of the g in pagues.
I'm curious about why this is subjunctive... I thought I understood this :-( ... subjunctive is used for anything where there is doubt, uncertainty, subjective opinion etc... but isn't "do not pay for that" just a straightforward command, so shouldn't this just be "paga"? (the imperative)
Thanks for the link. I thought this was subjunctive and couldn't understand it until now.
To copy a section from the link:
Note that the negative informal commands use the tú form of the present subjunctive.<pre>
No cuentes tus beneficios. Don't count your blessings. No hables más lentamente. Don't speak more slowly.</pre>
Be sure to note that this is the tú form!
Compare the affirmative informal (tú) commands with the negative informal (tú) commands:
Cuenta tus beneficios. Count your blessings.
No cuentes tus beneficios. Don't count your blessings.
Habla más lentamente. Speak more slowly.
No hables más lentamente. Don't speak more slowly.
Ok, this is a bit pedantic, but I wish they hadn't stated it like that. The imperative formal is formed the same way that the subjunctive is (but is not the subjunctive):
The formal commands are formed the same way as the present subjunctive, and the negative informal commands are formed the same way as the present subjunctive for tú:
Start with the yo form of the present indicative. Then drop the -o ending. Finally, add the following endings: -ar verbs: -es (for tú), -e (for Ud.), -en (for Uds.)
-er and -ir verbs: -as (for tú), -a (for Ud.), -an (for Uds.)
(This means that irregular verbs in the yo form are irregular in the imperative and subjunctives. Those are worth looking up in the above link.)
The exception is in the affirmative informal imperative (tú) commands, which are formed the same way as the present indicative Ud. form:
(hablar - ar + a = habla) (comer - er + e = come) (escribir - ir + e = escribe)
Wish people would just stop calling the Negative Imperative a Subjunctive because it has its own name. The Negative and the Affirmative for Tú Imperatve just happened to be conjugated differently, that's all. So, great observation, mattnag!!! I just have to give you some lingots!
I've read that the reason Negative Imperative (Tú) is conjugated dfferently from Affirmative is for the Negative command to sound more polite. Now, that makes sense to me. (I've read this from spanishdict.com) Also, when we give commands, we actually express what we want to happen, or what we want (or wish for) the other person to do, and Subjunctive is, afterall, also about wishes.
The commands in Spanish (except for the affirmative "tú" commands) all share the same conjugations as the present subjunctive. The affirmative tú command is "paga", the negative is "no pagues". http://www.studyspanish.com/lessons/informcomm1.htm, http://www.studyspanish.com/lessons/formcomm.htm
Well, that is not true. You see you pay someone some money for a sandwich for your friend and then let me know. http://dictionary.reverso.net/spanish-english/pagar%20por/forced
On return from his Spanish student exchange, my son says that he understood that emparedado was used (in Salamanca, Spain) for sliced bread type sandwiches & bocadillo more for subs type / French bread style. "The bread-enclosed convenience food known as the "sandwich" is attributed to John Montagu, fourth Earl of Sandwich (1718-1792), a British statesman and notorious profligate and gambler, who is said to be the inventor of this type of food so that he would not have to leave his gaming table to take supper. (www.foodtimeline.org/foodsandwiches.html)
Because it's already understood with "pagues," but the real reason is that it just doesn't sound good. Sometimes with language, things might seem grammatically correct, but do not "sound right" to a native speaker. In other words, a native speaker wouldn't say it that way.
Now I am all kinds of confused. Another question in this lesson was, "No pagues por ella." In discussion, the point was raised that the "por" was unnecessary, since the verb "pagar" translates as "to pay for". Someone then solved the problem by explaining that "por" added to the sentence indicated an interpretation of "do not pay on her behalf". All good so far. Now we have the sentence, "No pagues por ese emparedado." Leaving aside whether or not emparedado is the best word for sandwich, why do we have "por" in this sentence? It does not mean, "Do not pay on behalf of that sandwich." Thanks in advance for any clarification.
I did some digging on the 'emparedado' word, and according to this guy, it's apparently it's used in Panamá. Sándwich and bocadillo seem to be the common words (even in Panamá), I wish Duolingo would use those instead of taking 1 regional occurrence and calling that general. IT ISN'T. 1 COUNTRY USES IT. THAT'S IT.
It is the subjunctive form and the English translation should be: “You do not pay for your sandwich!!?” or “You don’t pay for your sandwich!!?” It is spoken with attitude or judgement which makes it the subjunctive. It is not correct for imperative which would be “paga” for “tú” form or “pague” without the s for “usted form, unless the following chart is wrong. http://conjugator.reverso.net/conjugation-spanish-verb-pagar.html