"She wants the clothes."

Translation: Hon vill ha kläderna.

[JeskeH]

Why is 'hon vill kläderna' incorrect (stating it should be 'vill ha'), when the english translation doesn't say 'she wants to HAVE the clothes'?

[Lundgren8]

Because if you want a thing in Swedish, you always say ”vill ha” whereas in English you only say ”want”.

• Vill du ha mera salt? (Do you want more salt?)
• Mamma, jag vill ha en hund. (Mum, I want a dog.)
• Partiet vill ha förändring. (The party want change.)

[JeskeH]

Makes sense, thanks :)

[Iza690206]

Thx

[rjd1234]

Kläder clothes
Kläderna the clothes

[cayvie]

what is the difference between kläder and kläderna?
.

[mulipleLucassss]

clothes and the clothes

[SuzanErven]

How would one say "I want to have clothes" in Swedish, since 'ha' is already used when there is no 'have' in English?

[Aisling3009]

I think it would be the same, because the having is implied in this case. In English we mean the same thing, but we don't have to explicitly say 'have' for it to make sense. In Swedish I think it would always be "Jag vill ha kladerna"

[Musab414]

I think it should be as "Jag vill ha har kläder"

[MTAliz]

No

[Clive652527]

just a quick question from a confused german: Wouldn't it be possible to say "Hon vill kläderna ha"? Because sometimes the grammar is pretty similar to german in sentences like these. For example you can say "Hon har på sig skor" or "Hon har skor på sig" and both are correct, the second sentence however has the same grammar as in german. So I'm wondering why that isn't the case for this sentence.