36 Comments
Here's a discussion on the topic.
http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/111051/what-is-the-difference-between-jamas-and-nunca
Thanks for that, but based on what is said there, I'd have gone for nunca in this instance. Jamás seems a bit OTT for merely knowing a painter!
Even though it is a generic painter, you use the "a" after conocer, since you are talking about knowing a person. That is just how you use the verb
Should "conocido" always be followed by an "a"? I've seen this in a couple of different sentences thus far!
Yeah, in spanish you use the "a" after conocer, since that is how the verb is used in general. Like in present tense you would say "conozco a ..." So you do that with the verb in all forms, even with the participle
I agree elcapitan. I complained as concido also means known and that is a proper English sentence.
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Since when does Duo take off for extra spaces? I got the right answer but accidently left an extra space after "I" and was marked incorrect.
Seems like a double negative but a friend of mine from the DR said that Spanish uses double negatives, so great question.
What's the different between "conocer" as in "meet" and as in "know someone"?
ill tell you something to make it more fun to do Spanish type in a capitals
Poor english syntax,,,,,, Duolingo, do you ever read the cmments and make corrections?
- 591
Methinks the message is jamás(never) has a tilde on the más because it needs the stress there ..otherwise it would sound like jámas (which is not a word).
If I got that right it's a language tip. Por favor me corrija si me equivoco Lajoeiro, o otros.
For what it's worth I would only call the ~ over an n a tilde. I tend to just hear "accent (mark)" for the more apostrophe-looking thing that shows up over vowels.
- 591
Vandermonde: You are right, this can cause confusion, and does occasionally. This is a definition difference on a cognate. In Spanish the tilde is the accent mark (see: https://es.wikipedia.org/wiki/Acento_ortogr%C3%A1fico), where in English usage it is the wriggle over the enay (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tilde). Usually you can guess which is meant, but you have to know that there are two potential usages in a Spanish-English conversation.
Muchas gracias Lajoeiro.
your explanation is better than mine, i didn't consider Ñ as word with "tilde" (or "acento ortográfico"), only vowels has "tilde" in spanish. By the way in portuguese they have different "tildes" including ~ for vowels.....
in spanish the words without "tilde" are "llanas" (the stress is in the next-to-last syllable) so if "jamás" is without the tilde the stress of the word is in the penultime syllable not in the last... it's not related with the meaning (in this case) the use of the tilde.....
