"Prästen hade inte tid."

Translation:The priest did not have time.

November 26, 2014

16 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/MarkNaylor4

Should the translation 'the priest hadn't time' be accepted here? It works in 'English' English.

May 9, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/daneosaurus

Interestingly, Chaucer (Middle English, I believe) spelled "hade" as "hadde". Cool to see the influence these languages have had on each other over the past century or so.

November 26, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/airelibre

Chaucer was not around in the past century. He's from the second half of the 14th century, when the Nordic languages had nothing to do with English. True, the Middle English for "had" was "hadde" from Old English "hæfde" (pronounced hav-day) while Old Norse had "hafði" (prononuced hav-thee). The similarities stem from the fact that both Swedish and English have common ancestry in the hypothetical Proto-Germanic language, but other than a few words introduced by Nordic invaders who settled in the north of England between 790 and 1066 ("Vikings"), the two languages haven't had much contact since before 400AD, a long time in linguistic terms. It's always cool to find the similarities, and some sentences sound almost exactly the same in each language, but others are extremely different.

February 20, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/Kelirya

Those who came in 1066 were also essentially descendants from Vikings if to think about it...

September 5, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/Lundgren8

I don't think the -e necessarily have to do with Nordic influence though, Chaucer spelt many words with -e at the end. The similarities in this example are probably a coincidence.

November 26, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/daneosaurus

Well, in that case, interesting coincidence!

November 26, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/SamKunin

What's wrong with "hadn't"

February 17, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/ArtBurnap

How does 'hade ingen tid' compare with 'hade inte tid?' In US English I would use 'not have time' more often than 'have no time' (without any particular change in meaning), but in German I believe one would generally say 'hatte keine Zeit' (corresponding to 'ingen tid' instead of 'hatte nicht Zeit.' In English, I feel the difference is more one of customary usage, but in German and perhaps in Swedish, there is something additional going with the no/not distinction that may or may not apply to this example. Thoughts?

November 23, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/Mercalyn

Does "Prästen hinner" work, or does it need an object like "Prästen hinner för oss"

September 5, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/airelibre

I can't say whether or not this is possible, but it would have to be in the past tense, Prästen hann inte. My instincts tell me this isn't a complete sentence and it needs a verb, like Prästen hann inte göra något, but I could be wrong.

September 5, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/Arnauti

You're right that the expression would be Prästen hann inte. This expression does work on its own, of course it somehow requires a context, but it still works as a sentence on its own so it's an accepted answer.

February 21, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/zenith90

so in this case we should also pronounce "hade" as "ha"?

February 21, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/Arnauti

No, although lade and sade that are pronounced la and sa, hade pronounced with two syllables in the past. So it's actually said as if it were written 'hadde'.

February 21, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/zenith90

Oh I see, so Is there a specific grammar for pronouncing the past verbs that end with "de" ? it's so confusing ×_× Tack för hjälpen

February 22, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/Arnauti

For longer verbs, like pratade, the ending is usually omitted in the spoken language, but it doesn't sound odd to pronounce it either, many people do that at least occasionally, some people do it a lot. Most people will say the ending if they speak slowly and clearly.
For lade and sade it sounds odd to pronounce the -de ending, even in slow, careful speech. So out of those two groups, it's just hade that is the odd one out as far as I know – any native speakers correct me if I'm forgetting something here. (These 3 are the only 2-syllable ones).

^this is all just about the -de ending in verbs that end in -ade. If there's anything other than a before the -de, we don't skip -de. For instance no one ever skips the de ending in verbs like gjorde 'did'.

February 22, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/zenith90

Wow, that wasn't as confusing as I thought! Thanks alot for clarifying.

February 22, 2016
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