From the suggestion it says deres can be your as well, so why "They have your wine" is not a possible translation?
It can mean your, but only when talking to someone you address formally (which would only be the royal family). So you can safely disregard that translation
So, since this sentence isn't using "sin" or "sine", can it roughly translate to "they (the girls) have their (the boys') wine"?
I have found this question misleading as it implies that sin sit sine could be used with de.
However, as I understand it, sin sit sine should not be used here because the subject de is a plural. (I checked multiple sources on this, particularly because ElHeim had been voted down on this page while quoting Duolingo about the third person singular. Those downvotes existing on what I find to be correct information is very confusing.)
If anyone else is confused, please ignore (in the post I am replying to) the phrase "since this sentence isn't using "sin" or "sine" ". Not only is the Duolingo sentence not using these, it should not and cannot use them (because the subject pronoun is de).
That negative hypothetical comparison aside, I believe the answer to the question is:
Yes,* it can translate to:
they (the girls) have their (the boys') wine"?
Or more generally to: "they (group 1) have their (group 2's) wine". Where the gender of either group can be any gender you please.
[* Disclaimer: I'm a beginner in Danish. I researched this answer extensively, but there's always the chance I've misunderstood something. However, the posts already here were so confusing to me that I had to try to make sense of what they meant.]
This is correct :-)
The exact meaning of "De har deres vin" is unclear without context. It can mean both "They have their own wine" or "They have somebody else's wine". If you wanted to signify that it is their own wine the sentence would be "De har deres egen vin".
No, "sin" and "sit" tells us nothing about the owners gender, they tell us about tye grammatical gender of the owned objects. "sit" for t-words, "sin" for n-words. "Sine" is used for plural regardless of word gender.
Sit ur (uret)
Sin bil (bilen)
No, I think what Cris meant was that there are diferent persons who have and who really own the wine. If there was one person (one group of person in this case), it would be "De har sin vin".
I know this is likely a stupid question. But how do you tell the difference between 'de' meaning 'they' and 'de' meaning 'you'?