Is there a difference in meaning between "Hon har på sig skor." and "Hon har skor på sig."?
I have a friend that does not wear shoes. So, then to say he does not wear shoes, would it be han har inte på sig skor?
Han har inte skor på sig is acceptable, but not Han inte har… , because in the latter one, the verb is not in the second place, which it needs to be in all Swedish sentences (except questions and subclauses).
I tried learning it like this :
wears = har på sig/dig/oss = has on his/your/our
P.S : på = on
No, but not because of the verb, but because of the possessive pronoun her.
That sentence would be either Hon har på sig sina/hennes skor or Hon har på sig skorna. English will often use a personal pronoun when Swedish prefers to use just the definite, read more here: https://www.duolingo.com/comment/6014446
This could also be without possessive in English: "She has on her [meaning her body] shoes". I don't think Newton7's answer is necessarily incorrect. It is a grammatically correct (if somewhat strange sounding) English sentence and a literal translation of the Swedish.
Whether you say "her" or "herself", using a pronoun rather than an adjective there feels strange to me, grammatically.
Um is skor supposed to be pronounced like skovre kinda? Like djur... the weird v r sound thing. How do I say it?
Also skor and sko, just one shoe, sound identical to me
Is the TTS correct on this one? It threw me off that this has a 'sk' sound as opposed to the beginning of 'sköldpadda', and 'kjöl' has a similar sound to that.
Sk is only pronounced with the sj-sound before front vowels (e, i, y, ä, ö). Likewise, k is pronounced with the tj-sound before front vowels as well.
Those are reflexive pronouns and they change like this:
jag – mig
du – dig
han/hon/den/det – sig
vi – oss
ni – er
de – sig
So Han/Hon/De har på sig skor with 'sig', but 'dig' is only used with du: Du har på dig skor.
It's a reflexive pronoun. att ha på sig 'to wear', is a reflexive verb in Swedish.
Literally we say 'to have on oneself'.