In English, the sentence "She's running before me" could technically (and this is debatable) only mean location because "me" is an object, not the beginning of an assumed clause - "She's running before I [run]".
Is there the same kind of distinction in Swedish? ("Hon springer före jag [springer].")
I assume absolutely nobody would care in speech or writing, as is the case in English, but I'm curious.
english isnt my first language, but to me using "before" to indicate place here feels very strange. I would use "ahead of" then (or in front of, if you want to imply close vicinity). With "before"I immediately think of time.
can anyone verify (or refute) if using "before" to indicate place could indeed be used here?
For what it's worth, as a native speaker of American English, I would never say, "She's running before me," or if I did, I would immediately clarify, "She's running before I am."
If I meant location, I would say, "She's running in front of me," or "She's running ahead of me." We don't speak Shakespearean English anymore.
(I would never say "She runs before me." That means she habitually runs before I run, and I can't think of any situation where I would say that without clarifying. But I did type that as my answer because it's shorter.)