"Vanligtvis kommer han efter mig."

Translation:Usually, he comes after me.

December 2, 2014

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Can we use brukar instead of vanligtvis?


"Brukar" is a verb so the sentence would be different. I guess it should be "Han brukar komma efter mig" but I'm not sure it is correct.


That's right.


My mind is blown here; I don't get it. How on earth can a verb mean "usually" and act like an adverb coming before another verb? Is there any source or explanation you can refer me on that?


Well, brukar means something like "to do [something] habitually", so that's why it acts like an adverb in translation.


Wait... do you mean that "brukar" = "soler" in Spanish? Oh God, another language with a verb like that! :'D


Wow, swedes have verbs for literally everything apparently.


It still does not make much sense syntactically in this sentence: "Han brukar komma efter mig", but at least it is semantically clearer now, thanks!


In English you can say "He used to come after me". I think it's similar.

Also, the dictionary translates it also as "to tend". I.E. He tends to come after me.


Thanks a lot, now, I fully get it!


We do have the phrase "used to" in English, but it doesn't mean "brukar." "Used to" refers only to the past: "He used to come after me" means he came after me as a habit sometime in the past. It doesn't apply to the present.

A better translation of "brukar" would be "usually."

Also, in most cases we don't need to translate the word "brukar" because the meaning is implied in English. For example: "Vi brukar ha frukt till frukost" could correctly be translated to "We have fruit for breakfast." In English, it is a statement of what usually happens. Someone correct me if I'm wrong, please.


Isn't it "He is used to ..." instead? I think 'used to' is used to refer something you did in the past.


numice -- Isn't it "He is used to ..." instead? I think 'used to' is used to refer something you did in the past.

You are right, "used to" refers to the past, and "is used to" refers to the present. However, they don't mean the same thing. It's weird, but this is what the phrases mean:

"used to" = did something in the past, did it more than once, and does not do it now "He used to go to the park every day." Perhaps now he just plays computer games.

"is used to" = something feels normal to a person because it has happened many times before, or because it has happened continuously for a time "The water felt cold when he first jumped in, but now he is used to it." "She yells a lot, but I'm used to it." "I don't like losing at chess, but I'm used to it." "My mother-in-law is used to being in charge of holiday plans."


Just curious, but does "kommer" imply reaching orgasm in Swedish too?


Yes, it can mean that as well.


Does 'come after' mean 'follow', or is it meant in the sense of coming later?


In this sentence it means coming later.

"Vanligtvis följer han [efter] mig" = "Usually he follows me"


So it cannot mean 'follow'? Or is it simply more usual to write 'följa efter'?


"komma efter" is sometimes used in the sense of "follow", but I'd say that you would usually translate "follow" to "följa" or "följa efter".


What is the difference between vanligt and vanligtvis?


Vanligt is an adjectivt, vanligtvis is an adverb.


But they both come in this section of 'adverbs'...


From what I can see, "vanligt" as an adverb is taught only in the fixed expression "som vanligt", meaning "as usual".


Ah, yes, that could be it. Thanks for your comment!


would 'ovanligtvis' mean uncommonly, infrequently?


There is a special word ”sällan” that we would use.


What does that means? Why there is inversion subject verb?


The V2 rule. The 'main verb' of a sentence wants to go second. It's common in basically all Germanic languages except English.


It also happens in English, though rarely, with certain negatives: Neither do I know why. Not only is he.... Never have I seen such! Seldom do we see him at work. But I will admit, rarely is that the case.


ah! Second you say... I thought second meant "just after the subject"... So if I have an adverb first, the verb goes just after the adverb, in second position, and before the subject ?


Adverbs are so difficult!!!!! Someone could suggest me some method to learn? Some relation with italian,french, russian, english? I am really desperate! And my native language is italian, so different from swedish? (I know, probably I seem the spoiled, lazy student, but I need a mnemonic help!)


È una bella gatta da pelare anche .per me, .....es un hueso duro de roer para mí también. so repeat and repeat and repeat the lesson.


I am a Slav, a proud member of the group with hard languages, but Swedish is just.... ahhh! Why!? Why can't you be easier!?


"Ordinarily" should also be accepted, at least in standard American English


Sure, that should be added if it's missing.


hej all. does han kommer vanligtvis efter mig, incorrect? I believe it should be correct while the V2 rule is considered and furthermore the adverb comes right after the verb. now, if my written sentence is correct, can also somebody lets me know why in the Doulingo sentence the adverb has come at the start of sentence? THx


It should be correct to my knowledge and be accepted if you are positive you did not make any crucial typos.

As for the second question, the adverb is at the start of the sentence both in the Duolingo sentence and the suggested English translation as what they are after is 1:1 translation. So, if what you were presented with was "Usually, he comes after me." to be translated into Swedish, you better stick with the given order and locate "vanligtvis" where "usually" is located in the English counterpart -an acceptable location for an adverb in Swedish, as well.


tack för din snabt svarar (hope my sentence should be correct :-))


The machine tells me Han kommer vanligtvis efter mig is an accepted answer, so I don't know what may have gone wrong here.


What does "kommer efter" mean?
Is it like, I am the first act in the variety show, and he is the second act, so I sing a song on stage first, then I leave the stage and he "comes after" me with his magic act? Or is it like, when I hit my little brother, Mommy "comes after" me with the wooden spoon?
Or is it like, if I need a ride home from soccer practice, my dad will "come after" me in the car and drive me home?


The last example doesn't really work in Swedish, but it's hard to give a general answer as it's a very versatile phrase - just like, as you say, in English. I imagine that most possible interpretations in either language translate well directly into the other.


So, the phrase can be about time, and it can be about chasing someone?


Yes, that is correct. Although I will say that without context, the first interpretation seems more likely.


Thank you so much! :D


Does this mean he comes looking for her, say after an argument, or just the regular meaning of him being in second position?


Definitely the latter.


The English translation sounds a little strange to me. It makes sense, but I feel "He usually comes after me" should at least be an acceptable translation. Can someone explain to me why it is not?


That is accepted - we currently accept thirteen different translations. :)

The reason it isn't the default is that both of those are very natural constructions in Swedish, so we want to teach both.


the pronoun is after the verb to accentuate it or why?


It's because the verb must be in the second position (the V2 rule). The first unit here is the adverb vanligtvis; the verb kommer MUST be in the 2nd position; then, like in this sentence, if the subject is NOT the first unit, the subject (han) comes next.


are commas never used in Swedish?


Commas are used quite a lot in Swedish, but not when placing an adverb or a subclause first. In those cases, Swedish - and other v2 languages - move the verb to the second position and incorporate the adverb or subclause into the main clause instead.


Why not, "Ordinarily he comes after me"?


That should be added if not accepted. I imagine it's missing simply because it's much less common in this construction.


Does the last part also translate as "he has it in for me?"


Perhaps with clear context, but not usually, no.


When does the "vis" come after vanligt?

  • vanligt = common (adjective)
  • vanligt = commonly (adverb)
  • vanligtvis = usually (adverb)


Why not "he usually comes after me"?


That's also accepted.


what's the difference between vanligtvis and vanligt ?

  • vanligtvis = usually
  • vanligt = common, in its indefinite singular neuter form
  • vanligt = commonly, in its adverb form


not sure if anyone has asked, but why valingtivs is at the beginning of the sentence instead of "Han kommer vanligtvis efter me"?


Either way works in Swedish, so we teach both constructions. :)


What's the difference between vanligtvis and brukar?


They serve the same function, but vanligtvis is an adverb meaning "usually" and brukar is a verb meaning "to usually do".


Does it also work in a sexual meaning, like in English?


Bit of an innuendo there!


What's the difference between vanlight and vanligtvis


Usually he comes after me


Usually he comes after me


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