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"Yo le dije a ella que no fuera tan difícil."

Translation:I told her not to be so difficult.

5 years ago

56 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/keawilson

Why isn't this translated "I told her that it/she wasn't so difficult"?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/pamec
pamec
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That would be "Yo le dije a ella que no era tan difícil."

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/LowKey99

You seem to be an expert, pamec. Gracias por la ayuda! Just to be clear, it sounds like the "fuera" in this sentence is the key. It looks to me like it is taking the shape of a command, although I wonder... does this carry over to other unrelated phrases, or does this particular command have to be worded just like this? For example, could I say "No fueras asi" for "don't be that way" and have it come across as a command?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/msquaredb

I think something similar was explained in a another thread from this section. The past subjunctive is used when the second/dependent clause is referring to the action in the first/independent clause when the first clause is in preterite, imperfect, past perfect, or conditional tenses. In this case, the second clause is elaborating on the first clause so the past subjunctive must be used.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/RobCrownsSuck

There are clauses that typically take subjunctivo, like esperar que. Here I think like when Spanish friends suggest a possible meeting time/place, it is subjunctivo as it is NOT under the speaker's control. Therefore there is an element of doubt, mixed with the imperative it is hard to understand. English subjunctive is vestigial and native speakers are not very aware of it, some drop it's use almost entirely (eg. If I woz, instead of If I were rich).

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/samuelv89
samuelv89
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"Don't be that way." is translated: "No seas así." and it does come across like a command/request.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/goodwilhealthy

why did somebody vote you down... wtf

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/RobCrownsSuck

@Brian Hurd. The tú imperativo uses the 3rd person verb conjugation. So -as doesn't fit, if you only have DL to go on imperative was not covered much, or explained well. Best to find a proper article on the forms, habla, hable, hablemos, hablad, hablen. With a used in -er/-ir verbs where you expect e and -ed & -id for vosotr@s

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/martinlus
martinlus
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I'm not sure that is correct I thought that decir que always triggered the subjunctive

1 month ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lisagnipura

Hola keawilson: Because this is something that the speaker told her to do or should do in the past, not something that she WAS in the past. So in this case, "no fuera" means something like "would not be" or "wouldn't be" . It is not an accomplished fact, it is something that the speaker told her to be in the past. Your sentence would not be subjunctive, so you would use "era" instead of "fuera".

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/theratt

I believe the correct translation would be "I told her not to be so difficult."

yo = I le dije = told her a ella = defines le as her no fuera = not to be tan dificil = so difficult

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/pamec
pamec
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Correct :)

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lisagnipura

Hola theratt: Yes, that is the correct translation at the top of this page.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/BLPK
BLPK
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How would you say in Spanish: i told her that it wouldn't be so difficult?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Elisabetta53
Elisabetta53
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Le dije que no era tan difícil

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/pamec
pamec
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Not quite. "I told her that it wouldn't be so difficult" = "Yo le dije a ella que no sería tan difícil"

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DianeLudmilla

Ok so sumarize, we have past subjunctive in that case because it was an order or a wish in the past, write? Same logical as in the lesson about the present subjunctive but now in the past!? And that is why the only possible answer refers to her behaviour, "le dije que no fuera tan dificil" because otherwise it would just be a fact "Le dije que no era o seria tan dificil". Am I right?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lisagnipura

Hola DianeLudmilla: I think you summed it up nicely.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/cdhicks1
cdhicks1
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SpanishDict.com says; I told her it was not so difficult. 'I'm never gonna get past this lesson. (sigh)

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rob88scps

"no fuera" could be referring to "ella" or to something else, the sentence is unclear. Thus, it could be "I told her not to be so difficult", or "I told her it wasn't so difficult"

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/pamec
pamec
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"I told her it wasn't so difficult" would be "Yo le dije a ella que no era tan difícil"

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/toshisama

For me it helped to look the sentence in the direct tense. "it's not that difficult" -> "Yo le dije a ella que no era tan difícil" (indicativo) "don't be that difficult" -> "Yo le dije a ella que no fuera tan difícil" (subjunctivo)

Maybe i'm telling stupid things, but your comment really helped me, because the key seems to be in the use of the subjunctive or indicative.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/pauldiener

But if you were translating 'I told her it might not be so difficult?'

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lisagnipura

hola rob88scps: No, sorry, amigo, it could not possible mean "I told her it wasn't so difficult". In that sentence there is no need to use the subjunctive "fuera" because there is no "telling" (i.e., "ordering") involved. "I told her it wasn't so difficult" would be "Yo le dije a ella que no era tan difícil".

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Elisabetta53
Elisabetta53
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Not here. In spanish it is clear from the sentence that "no fuera" is referring to her. As I wrote above, the gender is important. To say: "Yo le dije a ella que no fuera tan difícil" is different from: "yo le dije a ella que no era tan difícil". The first sentence refers that she should not be difficult (again, the meaning should be about behavior?), the second sentence refers that something should not be difficult TO her (meaning, something to do, or to learn).

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/BLPK
BLPK
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I hear you but fuera vs. era doesn't distinguish gender, just tense and mood. So it still seems from the Spanish I see that it could apply either to her or to it. The a ella is only about telling her, not about the subordinate clause. So, you may be right, but you haven't explained it to my satisfaction.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Elisabetta53
Elisabetta53
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I am sorry, but I can not explain it in any other way. Literal translations are often wrong in any language (It is happening to me in portuguese). One must think in the language one is learning and that is the difficulty in learning a new language. Sorry if I cannot help.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lisagnipura

Hola BLPK: I see how you could possible confuse phraseology, but it just makes sense that it is directed at "ella". There really is no other possibility. He can't tell her (order her) that somebody else not be so difficult. He told HER. Elisabeth53 and DianeLudmilla both sum it up well, above, and they are correct IMOH.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/tejano
tejano
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Elisabetta, no offense intended, but:

If it is clear that no fuera refers to her, how is that so?

What does no fuera have to do with gender?

If this sentence is about behavior or "should", what makes it so, in the absence of any language suggesting obligation, such as some form of deber or tener que?

If the sentence were, "Ella sabía que no fuera tan difícil," what would "no fuera tan difícil" mean?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lisagnipura

Hola tejano: You are comparing "manzanas" and "naranjas". Your sentence is not the same thing. In the Duo sentence, one person is telling (ordering) another person about what they should have done, therefore it is obvious (because of the "a ella") that the person he/she is ordering is "ella". In your sentence there is no "telling" (ordering), so there is no need for subjunctive in the second clause, so you would not use "fuera". Actually (nothing personal, amigo!), your sentence does not make sense. What did you mean it to say? Gracias.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Smileforthewhile

Elisabetta, good explanation. But why is there a "que" between clauses if there is no subject change?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/RobCrownsSuck

In English, I told her that she should not be so difficult. Now you have a decir que. The example translation IIRC (I cannot see it in this app), not to be so difficult, simply dropped the subjunctive mood in the English relying on tacit implication.

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/cdhicks1
cdhicks1
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SpanishDict.com says; I told her it was not so difficult. 'I'm never gonna get past this lesson. (sigh)

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ElNinoSolo

I told her don't be so difficult. Marked wrong. Wow DL

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/thefifthjudge
thefifthjudge
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It seems that the English translation given here could be more correctly formatted as "I told her 'Don't be so difficult'", in which case the Spanish translation would be "Yo le dije a ella 'No seas/sea tan difícil.'" The difference, which is nuanced in English, is that the Duolingo sentences uses the subjunctive, whereas the sentence given here uses (negative) imperative form of the verb ser.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/epapesca

Could you have said "Yo le dije a elle de no ser tan difícil"?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/hennie.hur
hennie.hur
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Dl needs some explanations to make, maybe a grammar-helpdesk would work..

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mikeg36
mikeg36
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I'm messed up with sentence and the grammatical construction here -- it is similar to a command and we need the subjunctive, but I am not sure why we need the subjunctive here. I need more practice with this "Le dije que + past subjunctive. Can anyone recommend a good book or link? This is my fourth time through with no hearts left and I am getting frustrated. Thank you. for your help

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JuevesHuevos

There are two clauses and a subject change (as well as a common trigger: "decir que")

http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/100055/subjunctive#.U3u7SldNuSo

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Bjarne.Magnussen

What is wrong with: I told her that it would not be so difficult?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rmcgwn

I am really struggling with subjunctive (my first exposure). My verb table shows me ¨(que) él/ella fuera" is the Imperfect Subjunctive. {I think others have referred to it as Past Subjunctive which I don't understand}.

We have no knowledge of this action being completed just that she had been advised not to act in a negative manner. Subjunctive tense seems to be "triggered" & is the fact that the sentence doesn't discuss whether she did it or not trigger the subjunctive? We only know what had been said to her.

We cannot use "era" because that would require another subject? Is there a rule about not having a new subject in the second clause to make it subjunctive? Or to say it another way, when the subject of the second clause is the subject/object of the first clause, you must use the subjunctive??

Would "I told her that she should not be so difficult" change the tense of fuera?

So I guess it comes down to "Why is it subjunctive? "

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SFJuan

Often decir triggers indicative because it is stating a fact. For example, ella dijo que el coche era rojo (she said the dress was red).

However here decir is a command/request (R in WIERDO), told, so it triggers subjunctive. I told (command) her not to be difficult.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/tyaun1
tyaun1
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How would you say: "I told her to not go would be as difficult" I am very very confused about 'fuera', can't it also be the subjunctive for 'go'. ???

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ronzo-uno

Yes, same words for "go" and "be" in several tenses. However, the "go" version will have an "a" after it, and the "be" version will not.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/thefifthjudge
thefifthjudge
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Famous last words...

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/BarbaraInEcuador

Could you say, "yo le dije de no ser tan dificil"? Translating from the French, "Je lui ai dit de ne pas être si difficile."

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/thefifthjudge
thefifthjudge
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Although that may be correct in French, I don't think that would be correct in Spanish. In Spanish, subjunctive is required (fuera is a subjunctive form of ser, see this source for more conjugation info) in certain contexts. Here's a video on the subjunctive case in Spanish.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/BarbaraInEcuador

Thanks! I'll watch the video! I love the subjunctive in French. I do NOT get it very well in Spanish! :-/

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/RobCrownsSuck

No the whole point but obfuscated by poor presentation, is that subjunctivo imperfecto is required, as the person told is the one who could may change behaviour. In English a grammatical parent tells a child "Don't be so difficult!", when reporting that we quote or write "I told her not to be so difficult".

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/flanwales

You can tell it is nearing the end. Getting really tough now.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/EliasHaglu

why is subjunctive used here?

10 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SFJuan

Because here dije (told) means told/ordered, and commands/requests require subjunctive in the subordinate clause. When decir is used to mean to say/tell/speak, then indicative is used in the subordinate clause.

Él dijo que esperaban (indicative): He said that they were waiting.

Él les dijo que esperaran (subjunctive): He told (ordered) them to wait.

10 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Blas_de_Lezo00
Blas_de_Lezo00
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Esta frase no tiene sentido en español. This sentence does not make sense in Spanish.

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SimonSzter

Why is fuera translated as ''to be'' isn't fuera ''to go''?

2 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Blas_de_Lezo00
Blas_de_Lezo00
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Good question. "Fuera" can be both to be or to go, in fact is past imperdect of subjunctive. If it is followed by an adjective is to be; but if it is followed by a place, it is to go.

http://www.spanishdict.com/conjugate/fuera

2 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/martinlus
martinlus
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I told her that it was not so difficult?

1 month ago