Translation:Tomorrow you are going to ask for a new route.
"Mañana vas a pedir una nueva ruta."
I don't understand why this is translated as a "new" route.
On this page, http://www.spanishdict.com/topics/show/20, it clearly distinguishes between "nueva" placed before the noun and "nueva" after the noun. After the noun, it means "new", while before the noun it means "another". It appears that this sentence should be translated as "Tomorrow you are going to ask for another route".
And while one could consider a meaning for "new" in English as a synonym for "another", this is an ambiguous usage, whereas "another" is not ambiguous and is therefore is a better translation.
This likewise applies to other sentences Duolingo has offered, where "nuevo/a" is placed before the noun and yet translated, seemingly incorrectly, as "new".
(Also provided as feedback.)
Collins dictionary says it can mean "new" before the noun as well: 'Ha presentado su nueva pelicula'
Does that make sense? I didn't understand, would you say soemthing like that in spanish? and why is that ask for and not look for, why would we ask for such a thing?
Paper boy asks for a better newspaper route; bus driver seeks a route closer to home, etc.
Shouldn't "way" be accepted in this translation? I would normally say "Tomorrow you are going to ask for a new way", as in "way to go", synonym of "route" in English.
I've noticed many (most?) times the time is put at the beginning of the sentences, whereas we would most likely put it at the end. Is this the standard format? Like, in English, the subject/verb is most often stated first, and the extraneous stuff left for the end. I know each language has its differences, and I'm wondering if this is one of them, or is it just a coincidence of the sentences we have?
You guys are so far ahead of me. My question must seem silly. But shouldn't "...to ask FOR a new route." be written "...PARA una nueva ruta."
I think because "pedir" can mean "to ask" or "to ask for", so you don't need another "for".