Fun fact: part of the reason that iconic melody moves the way it does is because Mozart was rather petty. He knew in advance who the singers would be, and knew that the soprano who would be playing the queen (his sister-in-law, Josepha Weber) had a nasty habit of raising and lowering her head along with the pitch. The ups and downs here were either him hoping to break her of that habit, or him thinking it would be hilarious to watch her bobbing her head like a chicken.
I used to play Schack (Chess) with my morfar. So far, we have almost all of the pieces mentioned:
Kungen, Drottningen, Tornet, Hästen, och Bonden.
All we need now is Löparen (I hope I spelt that right. I don't really know what it means in either Swedish or English).
A friend from Malmö insisted that the "Queen" piece in Chess is actually called the "Lady" or Damen. I'm torn, pun intended, between Drottningen och Damen. Is the difference generational or dialectal or something else? (My morfar lived just north of Luleå and was born in the late 1940s if it helps at all).
It's possible the difference is generational or dialectal, but I don't think I've seen drottning or häst used ever. The standard terms are definitely dam and springare. And löpare, you got the spelling perfect. :)
We also normally use the indefinite forms unless talking about a specific piece. Here are some other relevant terms:
- schack matt or just matt = checkmate
- remi = draw
- rockad = castling
- en passant = you can probably guess
- patt = stalemate
Why is the direct translation incorrect? If I translate "Hon ar nattens drottning" to "she is the nights queen" it is marked as incorrect. This is (should be) a correct translation as it makes perfect sense in English (as someone else mentioned it's similar to "she is the belle of the ball"). However, Duo will only accept "She is the queen of the night". Same situation with translating "It is the mother of the victim" to Swedish. The correct translation is "Det ar offrets mamma". In English, either would be correct though "it is the victims mother" would likely be used rather than "it is the mother of the victim", so why make it more difficult than it already is? I hope that last part made sense - what I am asking is if the Swedish and English sentences are put together the same (It is the victims mother), why trip us up by writing "It is the mother of the victim" when the correct translation is "It is the victims mother".
Arguably, at least. Swedish doesn't use the "of" construction for possessives - but we do use it for titles. For instance: kungen av Sverige, greven av Monte Cristo.
Since nattens drottning can be seen as a titular construction, it feels less wrong than it would usually - but it's also not very idiomatic.
I wonder if this is a British expression because we don't use this here in the U.S. that I know of. (I was very surprised when I first saw this sentence to be translated because it was unfamiliar and my first thought was, "Do they mean 'lady of the night' or 'lady of the evening'?! Surely not, because that would be very bad!")
I think we would use the set phrase, "She was the belle of the ball."
In the possessive "the x's y" construction, the definite for the y is never used. It's the same in English - you'd never say "the night's the queen", for instance.
Edit: Oh wow, I don't think I've ever seen three simultaneous responses before. Good job, everyone. :)