"- Don't you have any pants? - Yes I do."
Translation:- Har du inga byxor? - Jo det har jag.
1) Why is "Jo jag har det" incorrect? I am really struggling with knowing what word order to use.
2) If byxor is plural, then why is the singular det used? If I want to say "yes, I have them" should it not be Jo jag har dem?
I was taught by my Swedish professor that it's not a grammatical issue because it's an "idiomatic expression." It's just a particular way to asnwer However... I have never seen the "jo" until i encoutered this website. And i lived in Sweden for a year. Granted it was 10 years ago, but... I doubt things have changed that much.
I answered "har du inga byxor? jo, jag har det" but it's not correct. Why is the correct answer only "jo, det har jag" ? Is there a rule how to use "jo" in such answer?
Yes, you always reply with ”jo” to negative statements.
- Gillar du hundar?
Gillar du inte hundar?
As for ”jag har det” vs. ”det har jag”. Swedish has freer word order than English and allows both, but it’s more common in dialogues like these to put the ”it” first to emphasise it and what was just said. If you put it last, it’s correct, but it sounds weird as if you’re not emphasising anything in the sentence. It’s the same with ”det vet jag inte” (I don’t know it) and ”det vill jag inte” (I don’t want it.)
I took Swedish classes for a year and a half from Swedish professors and I have never heard of this distinction before. I don't remember ever even learning the word "jo" in either class. Is it really that wrong to use "ja"? I just got marked wrong for it in the question even though everything else was correct.
Yes, you can’t use ja when you respond to a negative clause. It sounds very weird.
Why would "gor" not be accepted in the place of "do". "Do" does mean "gor", does it not?
In my Swedish grammar book, it says it's normally "det gör jag," but with auxiliary verbs like "har", "kan", "vill", etc., you must retain the original verb. In this case, it would be "Jo, det har jag," because "har" was the verb in the question. Hope this helps. :)
Same question - I put "Jo, jag gör" for the second part, but that is incorrect. I don't fully understand why. I thought gör could be used to "reference the verb in the previous sentence"
I guess it's because in english you use the word "do" as an auxiliary (it doesn't really mean "do"). And it doesn't work like that in swedish.
It's easier for me because I speak french and in french, we don't use the auxiliary "do" either. That would be : Si, j'en ai. (Yes, I have)
But I'm not 100% sure it works like french though.
i put the same thing, but used ni instead of du. What's wrong about that?
I think it's because the second part is "Yes I do", which implies a single speaker, so the first part has to agree with a single "you".
When I looked up images of brallor on google, it showed images of pants. A friend confirmed that it is a slang term, should this also be a correct option?
As far as I can tell, 'inte' is used to negate verbs, 'inga' and 'inget' are used to indicate a lack of [noun]. the different endings here are based on the 'gender' of the word (en, ett, or plural).
What would be the difference between using Jo det gör jag vs Jo det har jag?