"I do not have soap."
Translation:Yo no tengo jabón.
Tú (note accent by the way! Tu without accent is 'your') means 'you' as the subject of the sentence. Here it is the object so 'te'
A piece of soap?.... I guess you're right, there must be a way to say the same in Spanish. ))))
Do you have soap? ¿Tienes jabón?
If you want to ask for a piece of soap:
¿Tienes un trozo de jabón? (Spain)
¿Tienes un pedazo de jabón? (Latin America)
If i understood it right, when latin american nativ speak spanish, most of the time its just more appropriate language (high language? Im not sure whats the word... honorable maybe?)
Because then u would say i dont have a soap i makes more sence saying i dont have soap
How do I know when to use the redundant direct object? I put No lo tengo jabon. It is wrong.
It isn't a redundant direct object. What you do, is replace the direct object (jabón) with a direct object pronoun (lo). But you don't say both.
No tengo jabón.
No lo tengo.
KevieO, Sounds like you are drifting into the uncharterd waters of clitic pronouns. CPs are never used with the verb tener. Nor are they needed if the direct object is a noun. Por ejemplo: Necesito jabón. jabón is a noun, so not CP needed. You need a CP, if you have a indirect object. I bring the soap to my friend. Le traigo jabón a mi amigo. In this sentence, the "le" is not optional.
The reason that the word "he" might be showing up in your hints is because it is translated to mean "I have," like the word "tengo". The difference is "he," from the verb "haber" is used in the present perfect tense. That's an upcoming lesson, so don't worry about it for now.
hago means "I make" and thus is the first person form of HACER which is a useful word that means I MAKE, cause, carry out, do...and the best dictionary for quickly seeing meaning is WordReference, i think. You can click on most words on the page for definitions. You can see the conjuations tho it lacks a few things like the English version but you can understand that eventually by printing out just an English and a Spanish version of some verbs and learn the terms. For me, it was a review but still took some time. Hope you stick with it. It's good to do young.
I believe that mi is an object pronoun, so you wouldn't use it with a first-person subject - you would use yo ("I"). Your sentence translates as "Me don't have soap."
"Me" is an object pronoun. "Mi" is a possessive pronoun. That sentence is actually "My don't have soap". :)
Ah, yes. You are right. Normally we see it as a possessive. When it's used as an object pronoun, usually at the end of a clause, there is an accent on the i. "Sufficiente bueno para mí" = "good enough for me."
"Tengo" is the first-person ("I have") conjugation for the infinitive "tener." "Tiene" is the third person/formal second person conjugation.
That would be "I don't have it soap".
You can either say:
No tengo jabón = I do not have soap.
No lo tengo = I do not have it.
tengo - I have
tiene - he/she/it has
(Yo) no tengo jabón - I don't have soap.
(Ella) no tiene jabón - She doesn't have soap.
Thanks for explaining the difference! I wrote "Yo no tiene jábon". Now I understand :)
Why not "No tengo el jabon"? My husband is a native speaker and always says the article, but duoLingo doesn't. What would other native speakers say?
He would say, "No tengo el jabón" if he is talking about soap in general?
This Duoling exercise is a general statement: ¿Tienes jabón? No, no tengo jabón.
If I were asking about a specific piece of soap, I may ask: ¿Tienes el jabón (que estaba aquí hace un minuto)? No, no tengo el jabón.
This question has already been answered in this comment section three times - twice by me and once by Tosh72.
"Tengo" means "I have."
"Tienes" means "you have."
("I'm not soap" would actually be No soy jabón. The negative goes before the verb.)
Tengo is a conjugation of the verb tener, meaning "to have." Your sentence translates as "I have without soap," which makes as little sense in Spanish as it does in English. You could possibly use estar in this case, and say "(Yo) estoy sin jabón" (I am without soap,) which makes perfect sense in English but sounds a bit stuffy and archaic.
However, since the word "without" is not found anywhere in the English sentence presented here by Duolingo, there is no reason for you to use it in your translation. The most exact translation is "(Yo) no tengo jabón."
I put: "No tengo el jabón," but it said the correct answer is: "Yo no tengo jabón" Did it count me wrong because I didn't put "yo" in front of the sentence or because I added the "el" before "jabón"?
This lesson my require it, but “yo” is not needed unless you really want to emphasize “I”. Like: “No tengo el jabón. Y tú? Tienes el jabón?” “Yo? No! Yo no tengo el jabón, tampoco!”
You do not translate "do" into Spanish.
Tengo = I have
No tengo = I do not have
Yo no tengo jabón. = I do not have soap.
In fact, "yo" is not required. Only if you want to emphasize "I".
NBC BM m BMU.K.inborninborn TrentoninI'mU.Kb MB? my uis Hugh in jveg7 gnocchi ho gm