"I feel sick when I see blood."
Translation:Mothaím tinn nuair a bhfeicim fuil.
Is a verb always eclipsed, when preceded by "nuair a"? Is there a general rule? (And thanks to the team for not letting it count as an error, but just a type-o, to leave it out)
To my knowledge, nuair takes a direct relative clause beginning with the particle a, which lenites its verb (in this case, a verb in the present tense that isn’t negated) rather than eclipsing it. An indirect relative clause would cause its verb to eclipse, but I don’t think that nuair can introduce an indirect relative clause.
EDIT: The direct relative particle a doesn’t mutate past indicative autonomous verb forms, or verb forms that begin with d’.
So it's an error in the exercise? Anyway, you distinguish between direct and indirect clauses. How can you tell the difference? I'd love to have an example in English if not Irish ;-).
In my view, yes, it’s an error in the exercise. A relative clause is a subordinate clause that refers back to a word in the primary clause. The difference between a direct relative clause and an indirect relative clause in Irish is that a direct relative clause refers back to a subject or direct object in the primary clause, while the indirect relative clause refers to a genitive or back to a pronoun that itself refers back to the primary clause. An example sentence with both types of relative clauses is Tá an fear a fheicim a dtáinig a bhean chéile ag gáire. (“The man who I see whose wife arrived is laughing.”). Its direct relative clause is a fheicim (“who I see”), and its verb is lenited; its indirect relative clause is a dtáinig a bhean chéile (“whose wife arrived”), and its verb is eclipsed. Both relative clauses refer back to an fear.