It has a grave accent (accent 2) in this example but it should have an acute accent (accent 1). But it is not true that all definite nouns receive the same accent. It depends on what accent it has in the indefinite form. This differs from the plural ending -ar, which always yields accent 2 (grave accent).
No, I’m afraid not. It depends on what accent the noun has when it’s indefinite. For example and ’duck’ has accent 1 (as all words with 1 syllable) whereas ande ’spirit’ has accent 2 (which is common for nouns ending on the Swedish ending -e).
When you make these definite, they both become anden, but ’the duck’ has accent 1 and ’the spirit’ has accent 2 since that’s what they had in the indefinite form.
I can recommend watching this video made by our moderator Blehg: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=lXp7_Sjgm34
I agree the two examples sounded different. Perhaps because they are from different areas with different accents. I liked the second playlist of pronunciations here (scroll down to rule#2): https://blogs.transparent.com/swedish/the-mysterious-swedish-sk/