No, vill by itself is merely an expression of will or intent, not of want. You have to use vill ha when you want something.
Excellent article. It was very helpful.
Both de and dem are pronounced as if they were spelled as dom in Standard Swedish.
– Edit: I crossposted with JonathanMa872661, who is also right. det normally sounds like de, which may be one reason we don't want to pronounce de that way too.
So is "they want to have ice cream" right here? (Have here refering for owning not eating)
I Believe that there are 4 categories. Fourh category are irregular verbs and 'att vilja' and 'att ha' go in this category.
I think you only form the vill (att vilja) part and the ha stays in infinitive. Vilja is irregular though (vill - ville - velat) i. e.: "Jag vill ha" - "I want (to have)" "Jag ville ha" - "I wanted (to have)"
Correct me if I'm wrong :)
Nope, "vill" always is expressing a "desire". If you want to say "they will have ice-cream" you would use "de ska ha glass".
How does this translate literally? What does the 'ha' do to the sentence? Is it a preposition in the same way the 'på' functions for '(Jag) har på (mig)', for example? Tack så mycket!
If i want to ask if you(singluar) want ice cream, do i say: vill du ha glass? Or vill ha du glass?
Yup, Vill du ha glass? It's a question so the verb goes before the subject. However the subject creeps in between the verb and things like particles or auxiliaries. (so it's only the part of the verb that shows time that goes first).
Hi, is it possible to implement a system where the first answer is graded, but we can still try several different translation to see if they are valid? I feel we would learn farther this way.
This is the kind of thing you should really bring up in the general forums, since it's up to Duo. The people who read the Swedish forums are mainly the course creators and users, whereas Duo staff are very unlikely to read our sentence forums.
This is the infinitive, which can basically never stand on its own. In the present form har, it's used a lot like has in English.
ha is also the form in the imperative, so that Have fun! in English can be Ha kul! in Swedish.
Is "would like" wrong? They tend to be interchangeable in English, with "would like" being more polite than "want"
There is not the same issue with sounding demanding in Swedish culture. So they don't have a softer, more polite way of asking for something. It sounds a bit harsh to native English speakers like me but it's not a problem. I live in Sweden and run into this question of politeness regularly, here its the tone you use that adds the politeness rather than the language itself.
Because the English word for glass (Swed.), glace (French), Eis(-creme) (Ger.) etc. is "ice cream". Ice (frozen form of water) is "is" in Swedish. Are you German? I know this can be a bit tricky, because in German we say Eis to both the edible thing and frozen water, although Eiscreme is also common for the edible version.
Well ice (frozen water) is edible too ;) Judging from the name Marieke is Dutch, and they too use "ijs" for both ice and ice cream.
It comes from the French word "glace" which actually means "ice" Beware the false friends - some words may look he same but that doesnt necessarily mean they are translated the same way
can't you translate they will have ice cream instead of they want ice cream?
"Will have" implies a future tense - you know they will have it in the future. This construction is saying they want it now, regardless of whether they will get it or not.
That "vill" is a false friend - it looks like "will" but it actually means "want"
Does this make sense, "De vill glass ha"?
I'm asking because it's interesting how similar Germanic languages are. In Afrikaans, that sentence would be "Hulle wil roomys hê" The "wil hê" is similiar to Swedish, but "hê" usually goes at the end. I was wondering if this pattern is also used in Swedish or do the words "vill ha" always only occur next to each other?