"She has no children of her own."

Translation:Hon har inga egna barn.

December 12, 2014

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What about "Hon har inga barn av sina egna"?


Can someone please tell me why is egna before barn?


I'd also like to know this.


egen is an adjective and those can go in two places: either before the noun they describe like here, or after the verb if there's a verb like är.
So either en röd bok 'a red book' or boken är röd 'the book is red'.

Here of course we have the first case. In English, you don't use an adjective for this word, but instead prefer a prepositional phrase, 'of her own' which goes after the noun. If the sentence had said something else, like Hon har inga gamla barn 'She has no old children' it would have worked the same way in both languages.


Thanks, mate, I got it after reading your answer :)


Could it be translated as "She does not have any children"?


I domt think so - this sentence specifies that she doesnt have any children of her own. She may still have children that arent her own, e.g. through marriage or adoption.


why is it "inga" instead of "inte"? It seems to me like the "inte" could go with the verb--like "doesn't have". Is it because the English sentence is "has no" instead of "doesn't have"? They do mean the same thing.


Yes. You're asked to translate "no children" and thus you'll have to translate to "inga barn".


This will take me some time to learn. I know the words but my brain thinks in english always haha


Shouldn't it be inget egna barn? I thought barn was an ett word?


It is, but inga is used with plurals, as it egna. Had it been just one child, it'd been "inget eget barn".


Ah, I see. I'll get this eventually. Tack sa mycket.


I get the 'inga' which refers to 'barn'. But why is it 'egna' and not 'egen'? I mean it refers to 'hon', not to 'barn', no? So shouldn't it be in a singular form??


No, egna refers to barn.

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