"La niña tiene los ojos del padre y la nariz de la madre."
Translation:The girl has the father's eyes and the mother's nose.
In Spanish as well as other languages an article is often used where we would use a possessive personal pronoun in English. I agree with the other commenters that "her father" and "her mother" should be accepted, because that is the more natural way to refer to one's parents.
With respect, unless you have a reference that supports your assertion for this particular case, I believe you and everyone else who apparently agrees with you are wrong.
When speaking of one's parents or the parents of others, you use the possessive pronouns - "mi madre," "tu tía," "mis padres," etc. when that is what you mean. Why is it suddenly different now? Obviously, you and everyone else is free to translate "the" to "her" without loss of meaning. Well, it's actually a little more specific, since we haven't really identified exactly which father and mother have been singled out. But that's probably okay.
After finishing the last Hannibal season… there is nothing innocent about this sentence. :/
Los ojos y la nariz esta en la refrigeradora. Ella va a comerlos con las alubias fava. Pero había quedaba sin chianti desde la noche pasada.
I put "the girl has her father's eyes and her mother's nose" and it was marked incorrect. Does anyone know why?
I guess that was because in the Spanish sentence the articles "el" (del) and "la" are used instead of the possessive "su". The sentence you suggest would be: La niña tiene los ojos de su padre y la nariz de su madre.
that makes sense, but one of the correct translations showed THE father and HER mother, when it is "el" (del) and "la". Why aren't they the same since it's both definite articles in Spanish?
I agree, and I reported it. "Her" father/mother is a more natural-sounding English translation of this sentence than "the" father/mother anyway, and as you noted, Duo's "correct" translation is not consistent.
It doesnt refer to HER parents specifically so technically should be 'the father' and 'the mother'.
I don't think anyone gets their eyes and nose from somebody else's father and mother. In Spanish, they use la/el instead of his/her for body parts and clothing, http://www.studyspanish.com/lessons/possadj.htm, and maybe that applies to anything that obviously belongs to the person.
What's the most natural in English.
The girl has her father's eyes and her mother's nose/ The girl has the father's eyes and the mother's nose?
The version with "the father" sounds clinical and impersonal; it might be said by people doing genetic research.
Yes, they should put the one by default as the one with "her".
Thanks! I tried it, "The girl has her father's eyes and mother's nose" was accepted!
"The girl has her father's eyes and her mother's nose" was marked correct today 6-21-2014
how can 'del padre' translate to 'the father' when 'la' translates to 'her mother' ? why not 'su' please explain !!!!!
"del padre" literally translates to "of the father" and "de la madre" translates to "of the mother". Spanish often uses "the" where we would use a possessive pronoun like "her" in English. So far I have seen it most for body parts, but I guess it is also used for other things like parents where it is obvious that "el padre" is talking about "her" father.
That was my first thought also. They seem to have dumped body parts into the "Medical" lessons. I guess it makes some sense. It would be hard to communicate with a doctor without knowing names for body parts, but I'd have been happier with more thorough lessons on body parts and on common medical terms. They both have a lot of vocabulary.
"The girl has the layers of fat of the father and the nose of the mother." I'll try that next time.
'the girl has the father's eyes and the mother's nose' should NOT be accepted. You would NEVER say that in English! It is HER father's eyes and HER mother's nose.
Your opinion should NOT be accepted as my opinion. I MIGHT say that in English!!! (I'll see your one exclamation mark and raise you two.) It seems your issue is with the Spanish sentence, not the English translation.
First, I want to say the DuoLingo folks who read and deal with all our corrections are patron saints--thank you! Thank you for your time and effort.
Second, since so many of the DL users are lenguaphiles (sp?) would any one know the etymology of english "eye" ? RAE says «ojo» derives from Latin oculus. It sort of looks like "eye" derives from ojo. Anyone know?
I knew that "eye" comes from the Anglo-Saxon side of English, rather than the Latinate Norman French, and has the same Germanic roots as the German word for eye: Auge. But digging a little, I found out that both "ojo" and "eye" come from the Proto-Indo-European root word for eye. So they are indeed related. (And nariz and nose from the PIE word "nas.") Etymology's a hoot!
And... if you know that another word for "nostrils" is "nares," in English, then "nariz" is Spanish is just a gimme. :)
I said the girl child bc i didnt know if i should Child or girl and it said it was wrong :c I was afraid to take the risk
I was marked wrong when I put "the nose of the mother" instead of "the nose of her mother". Aren't both grammatically correct?
If you're asking about using "from", then it's correct to say "She has her eyes from her father and her nose from her mother".
If you're asking about using "the", it would be correct if we were talking in general terms as biologists, or if we were talking about a non-pet animal. But if we're talking about a person or a pet, we'd use "his" or "her".
Nope. It's "el padre" and "la madre" so it would be "de el padre" and "de la madre", but "de el" always gets merged into "del".
I think it was rather cute that they paired the masc. "ojos" with the father and the fem. "nariz" with the mother. Sort of subtle way to help us remember the gender for the two new words. ;)
We know Spanish uses possessive pronouns for parents. The fact that they have not done so here, suggests the proper translation should be "the father" and "the mother" rather than "her father" and "her mother."
I see that nearly everyone objects to that usage and translation, but I have not found any reference to suggest it should be interpreted otherwise. If anyone has such a reference, please share it with the rest of us.
Clearly, most of us refer to our parents and the parents of those we know with a possessive pronoun. Using a definite article does sound a little too impersonal. Perhaps, the same is not true in Spanish.
Personally, instead of mounting a crusade to correct every imagined slight embodied in the English translation, I'd rather try to understand (a) the extent to which Spanish has the apparent emotional baggage that English does when using definite articles instead of possessive pronouns, and (b) whether using a definite article to refer to parents operates the same as it does for things like clothing and body parts.
I wrote "de" as "from", is it actually incorrect? Why was I marked wrong?