'No hay de que' or 'de nada'
My boss often uses the phrase 'no hay de que' in a context where I think 'de nada' would be used. This raises a few questions.
Firstly, I assume 'no hay de que' is short for something as the translation doesn't seem to mean anything. What is this short for?
Secondly, are there certain situations where one phrase would be used over the other or are they used interchangeably depending on personal preference?
Many thanks in advance!
To the first question, it's not short for anything. While it is indeed grammatically a very weird sentence, it does make sense on its own. It would translate literally as "there is no reason to". In a very colloquial way, one could also ask "¿de qué me das las gracias?" (this is not very correct Spanish), which would mean "for what reason do you thank me?". So I think what this sentence is doing is nominalizing the words "de qué", and saying there is no "de qué" (reason to).
So basically the sentence does not adjust the the formal rules of Spanish, but it got fixed like that anyway (maybe in a time when it was considered correct) as an expression.
By the way, correct Spanish would be "no hay porqué*", but I think nobody says that!
*porqué is written together because it's nominalized.
decir no hay de que es igual a decir de nada la diferencia se debe a costumbres de países o zonas dentro del mismo país., pero es exactamente la misma cosa.
Hello! I'm from Argentina. We always used "de nada" instead of "no hay de que". The phrase "no hay de que" is more formal and it's sense not depends of the short or long translation. Answer your secondly question, It's not certain situations where one phrase would be used over the other. In Argentina, we usually don't use it. I hope you understood me and I would like you correct me if thats necessary. Thanks! :)
*Secondly = Second
Tu Ingles es mejor que mi espanol, pero yo quiero solo ayudar!
Tu ingles es muy bien. Yo leo tu carta y entiendo.
Hasta luego xx
I would say "no hay de qué" is less formal than "de nada" in Spain. Maybe because in Argentina you don't use this expression, you are biased to think it's more formal? (by thinking something rarely used is likely to be formal)
Para sonar más natural y para corregir unas faltas, creo que esta es una traducción mejor:
"Hello! I'm from Argentina. We always used "de nada" instead of "no hay de que". The phrase "no hay de que" is more formal and its sense does not depend on the short or long translation. To answer your second question, there aren't certain situations where one phrase would be used over the other. In Argentina, we usually don't use it. I hope you understood me and I would like you to correct me if that's necessary. Thanks! :)"
Si puedes corregirme también, lo agradecería :-)
You can use both if you like, but "De nada" is most common and most used. :)
Don't mention it. :)
I'm not sure about the second question. I would say de nada is more "formal".