"Yo no he dejado la comida en tu casa."
Translation:I have not left the food at your house.
Can't it also be translated "I have not left food in your house" where "la comida" could be rendered as "food" in general?
Hola Amigo cinspiration: You may be thinking about the use of articles with abstract or general ideas. So, if you were talking about "food" in general, like "Food is necessary to live", you would use "la comida" to mean food in general - that is, in the world, in life, in nature, overall, etc.. But in this sentence we are talking about some food that is real, that we know about, so when we say "la comida" it is translated "the food" because we are talking about some specific food. I am not sure I explained it fully, but I hope you can get the gist of it.
That is helpful, thanks!
Now the question becomes: how would you say "I have never left food at your house," with "food" being in general?
No, in that case you should drop the "la" too: "Yo no he dejado comida en tu casa".
In Spain they use "comida" for lunch (I travelled Spain for 3 months last year and never saw almuerzo written anywhere). I have now been travelling South America for over 5 months and they only use Almuerzo for lunch in Chile, Argentina, Uruguay and Bolivia (I haven't been to any other Spanish speaking countries yet).
How are you supposed to determine whether dejado means "left" or "allowed" in this instance? Couldn't this sentence also mean "I haven't allowed the food into your house"? Maybe not the most intuitive translation but I think it also makes sense.
I had the same question. I thought this would be 'I have not allowed food in your house'. Are there any native speakers who have any advice?
They are very similar meanings, but since this lesson is entirely about the present perfect, you should probably preserve that tense in your translation instead of going to simple past.
anyone know of any particular reason why the Yo is included here? I would have thought the use of "he" makes it pretty unambiguous as to who has done the leaving...
Hola Amigo ph516503: The sentence is OK with or without the "yo". It does not change the meaning or anything. You can choose to use it or not. One is not better than the other. Some people say that it is absolutely NOT needed, others use it to clarify, emphasize that it is "YO" who is speaking.
There is a comment concerning comida and comido. That person suggested that one of those words (comida/comido) applied to food "in general" and the other to a "specific food". I have to disagree. Food is food. If, in English, we are talking about a specific food that food would be named. I have not left the roast beef (or any other stuff that can be consumed - pollo, pescado, carne) - at your house. So that still doesn't explain the difference between comida and comido.
Hola GaelBraxton. I believe you misunderstood the discussion. Lisagnipura was stating Spanish requires the definite article "la" with "comida" whether the sentence is referring to food in general (a nonspecific abstract reference to food) or to some specific food identified earlier in the conversation. The English language only uses the definite article "the" if the food referenced is specific food.
I have not left food at your house. Don't blame me for your ant problems.
I have not left the food at you house. I took my restaurant doggie bag with me when I left your house. (I believe in this example, a more natural sentence would be: "I did not leave the food at your house." However, the present perfect is the focus of this lesson.)
"Comido" translates as "eaten" from the verb comer. Someone else recommended an excellent site for full conjugation tables: http://conjugator.reverso.net/conjugation-spanish-verb-comido.html
How common is this verb tense in spanish speaking countries (I am thinking of México, Columbia, and Spain), because in english, as indicated by a lot of the comments, this verb tense is almost always avoided and i was wondering if that was the same for spanish people?
Is the "Yo" in this sentence optional because it is understood from the "he" form of haber?
Yes. Personal subject pronouns are pretty much always optional, even if some of the verb forms are ambiguous (most subjunctive forms are the same between yo and él/ella). Context will help most often.