In terms of word order, would "bainim mo chóta díom" be acceptable? "Baineann sé a chóta de" was.
In general, direct objects precede indirect objects in indicative mood statements. Indirect objects can precede direct objects, though, when the indirect object is found in a prepositional pronoun/phrase and the preposition is part of a phrasal verb, such as bain de (“take off”), cuir ar (“put on”), etc.
Note that indirect objects precede direct objects in imperative mood commands, e.g. Bain díot a chóta! (“Take off his coat!”).
I'm sorry, what did you say there. Can you explain it to me without all the "objects" "indicatives" etc. I don't know what these things are anymore (English class was a very long time ago). All the other examples we have had in this section were at the end of the sentence. Why is this one different?
This one is different because bain de is a phrasal verb; a phrasal verb is a verb that requires a phrase (typically a verb plus a preposition) to express a meaning that differs from the verb by itself. An English example of a phrasal verb is “take off” in referring to an airplane leaving the ground, since its meaning is different from that of the plain verb “take”.
So to answer the original question, would that mean that 'Bainim mo chóta díom' would indeed be an acceptable alternative, as the sentence contains the prepositional phrase 'bain de'?
(On a completely unrelated point, how do you get formatting such as italics in these comments?)
The FGB and the NEID show both word orders being used for the phrasal verb bain de in non-imperative sentences, so it could be considered acceptable, but ambiguity could be possible in that bain de could be mistaken for a non-phrasal-verb meaning of bain with de.
Search for “Markdown” in the forums for details on text formatting (e.g. add an asterisk directly before and directly after the text that you would like to italicize).