"Han har inga böcker."

Translation:He has no books.

December 18, 2014

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What a sad existence.


I put 'He does not have books', why is this incorrect?


Because 'He does not have books' would be 'Han har inte bocker'. Inte- does not, Inga is more of a 'does not have "any"'. Hope this helped and made sense!


Because it says 'any books'


It's ingen for common gender, inget for neuter, and inga for plural.


What's the difference between inge and inte? I believe this was answered in another question, but I don't know where.


Han har inga böcker = he has no books Han har inte böcker = he doesn't have books

[deactivated user]

    I wrote "He doesn't have books" and it was wrong. Why?


    That would be translated as "Han har inte böcker", rather than "Han har inga böcker", which would literally be translated as "He has no books".

    [deactivated user]

      [deactivated user]


        All the bookworms out there are gonna kill him


        Consoling him for his sad, ignorant existence sounds more appropriate to me. We are not interested in lynch justice, or even public shaming as has happened in Hawthorne's »Scarlet Letter«.


        'He hasn't any books' and I was corrected on my English? Apparently it's 'He hasn't got any books'.


        We usually only use "have not" (or "haven't") for the auxiliary have in the perfect tense, not where have is the main verb. In that case you'd generally say "don't have" or "haven't got".

        I mean people do say things like "I haven't any" but it's very informal and colloquial, and might be completely unacceptable to a lot of people. It seems to be getting more common though! And "have not" sometimes pops up in archaic or very formal language. The stuff in the first paragraph is the safest general rule


        Why all these "inge" exercises keep popping up in my question lessons ? What's worse is that there no explanation about how it works


        Can "inte" be used here as well? Would the meaning be the same?


        Han har inte böcker would translate into He doesn't have books. I don't think this sentence is completely equivalent to the original.


        I feel like in English "He has no books" and "He doesn't have books" has the same meaning. It is like two different ways of saying the same thing. Is it not the same in Swedish? I am just trying to understand the thought process in Swedish. Thank you!


        I cannot hear how inga is pronounced whatsoever. Is it inya???


        If anyone knows John Waters (a somewhat famous film maker from Baltimore) then you know what NOT to do with this loser.


        I put he doesnt have any books, why is that wrong?


        Sounds reasonable to me. You should report it via the reporting button. (The flag icon that appears when you log your answer in) Otherwise, the moderators will not notice your answer.

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