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"His children do not drink coffee."

Translation:Hans barn dricker inte kaffe.

December 19, 2014

25 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/onlycookie

Is there any way to distinguish in this sentence whether the person has one child or two(more)? I cannot see one (hans can be for sing and pl. dricker does not conjugate) , but that naturally does not mean it's not there *hehe Sorry for the question, but I'm seriously interested.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/devalanteriel

No, it's impossible to tell without context.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Sahnekirsche

Why do you say 'Hans barn' and not 'Sitt barn/ Sina barn'?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/AnUnicorn

You only use sitt/sina when your trying to clarify that the possessive refers back to the subject. Because the possessive is in the subject itself, there's no need for a clarifying sina/sitt and you just use the normal pronoun.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/SwedishSucks

Hmm, is it only to clarify, or do you need to use it?

If "Han älskar sina barn" means "He loves his (own) children", can "Han älskar hans barn" mean EITHER "He loves his (own) children" OR "He loves his (someone else's) children" or can it only mean the latter (someone else's children)?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/devalanteriel

sina means the children are his own, and hans means they're somebody else's. No exceptions.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Silpheed

So I notice in English we say "His children do not drink coffee." Where in Swedish do you use "do/gör?" So far I have only seen "His children drink not coffee." Is it obsolete?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/AnUnicorn

All the Teutonic languages I've dabbled with lack the auxiliary 'do' that seems to be everywhere in English. "Ich trinke Kaffee nicht/Ik drink niet koffie/Jag dricker inte kaffe." Is German/Dutch/Swedish respectively, and they all sound like 'I drink not coffee/I drink coffee not.' They also don't seem to distinguish between present progressive and simple present tenses (e.g., "he is drinking" vs "he drinks").

So just imagine you're talking like a stereotypical Viking in a cheesy movie. "I drink not coffee; I drink BEER!"


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Zmrzlina

Yeah, English is actually that odd cousin of the Germanic family... :p


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Hayco7

"Ik drink geen koffie" zouden wij zeggen. "Ik drink niet koffie" is not Dutch


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Steph.Ro

Yes, in German and Dutch we put 'no' (kein/geen) before nouns and 'not' (nicht/niet) before verbs.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/JonathanMa872661

That's what makes Swedish a language, rather than a code of English.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/JDLENL

In Swedish, the gör is implied. I've only seen gör used for the word Do directly. I.e. Jag gör det inte. "I do not do that."


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/bigmjoe

What is the difference between ej and inte?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/devalanteriel

They're synonymous, but ej is formal. You may encounter it in text and where brevity is important, such as on road signs.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Silhou

If someone said this sentence to me elsewhere, how would I know "hans barn" means "his children" and not "his child"?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/devalanteriel

Contextually, or you could ask for clarification. It's ambiguous.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/notduolingobird

Does inte basically mean -n't


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/devalanteriel

It means "not", so yeah - "-n't" is a contraction of that.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Kisumisu_007

why not "hans barnen"?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/devalanteriel

Possessives don't take the definite - just like how you wouldn't say "his the children" in English.

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