"His children do not drink coffee."
Translation:Hans barn dricker inte kaffe.
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Hmm, is it only to clarify, or do you need to use it?
If "Han älskar sina barn" means "He loves his (own) children", can "Han älskar hans barn" mean EITHER "He loves his (own) children" OR "He loves his (someone else's) children" or can it only mean the latter (someone else's children)?
Is there any way to distinguish in this sentence whether the person has one child or two(more)? I cannot see one (hans can be for sing and pl. dricker does not conjugate) , but that naturally does not mean it's not there *hehe Sorry for the question, but I'm seriously interested.
All the Teutonic languages I've dabbled with lack the auxiliary 'do' that seems to be everywhere in English. "Ich trinke Kaffee nicht/Ik drink niet koffie/Jag dricker inte kaffe." Is German/Dutch/Swedish respectively, and they all sound like 'I drink not coffee/I drink coffee not.' They also don't seem to distinguish between present progressive and simple present tenses (e.g., "he is drinking" vs "he drinks").
So just imagine you're talking like a stereotypical Viking in a cheesy movie. "I drink not coffee; I drink BEER!"