"His children do not drink coffee."
Translation:Hans barn dricker inte kaffe.
Is there any way to distinguish in this sentence whether the person has one child or two(more)? I cannot see one (hans can be for sing and pl. dricker does not conjugate) , but that naturally does not mean it's not there *hehe Sorry for the question, but I'm seriously interested.
You only use sitt/sina when your trying to clarify that the possessive refers back to the subject. Because the possessive is in the subject itself, there's no need for a clarifying sina/sitt and you just use the normal pronoun.
So I notice in English we say "His children do not drink coffee." Where in Swedish do you use "do/gör?" So far I have only seen "His children drink not coffee." Is it obsolete?
All the Teutonic languages I've dabbled with lack the auxiliary 'do' that seems to be everywhere in English. "Ich trinke Kaffee nicht/Ik drink niet koffie/Jag dricker inte kaffe." Is German/Dutch/Swedish respectively, and they all sound like 'I drink not coffee/I drink coffee not.' They also don't seem to distinguish between present progressive and simple present tenses (e.g., "he is drinking" vs "he drinks").
So just imagine you're talking like a stereotypical Viking in a cheesy movie. "I drink not coffee; I drink BEER!"
In Swedish, the gör is implied. I've only seen gör used for the word Do directly. I.e. Jag gör det inte. "I do not do that."
They're synonymous, but ej is formal. You may encounter it in text and where brevity is important, such as on road signs.
If someone said this sentence to me elsewhere, how would I know "hans barn" means "his children" and not "his child"?