"Aquella noche ella tenía dolor de estómago."
Translation:That night she had a stomach ache.
Why would this be in the imperfect? It happened once on one specific night, so shouldn't it be in the preterite?
I think it may be because it is a feeling, which requires the imperfect. http://www.studyspanish.com/verbs/lessons/impreg.htm
I also thought it was That night she had stomach ache. It seems duo lingo is fussy about absence or presence of articles (un or una) and the sentence is okay in English.
I've reported it again as still not accepted without "a" which is unnecessary.
I read that they are used less frequencently these days by Spanish speakers. I don't know if their scant appearance here is a reflection of that, but I share your observation. In fact, they are so rare here that I was not able to catch the word.
"She had a stomachache that night." Why would this be wrong? It seems like this is asking too much for a literal translation rather than what would be said correctly in English.
Why isn't "That night she was having a stomach ache" not acceptable? It seems to me that "she had" or "she was having" conveys the same idea.