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"Never before had he treated me so well."

Translation:Nunca antes él me había tratado tan bien.

5 years ago

25 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/Jonali3

Why 'nunca' and not 'jamas'? I thought both had the same meaning. Can anyone explain?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/wboerger

This is the best explanation that I've been able to find. http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/111051/what-is-the-difference-between-jamas-and-nunca

Nunca is "never" in the sense that it hasn't ever happened to this point in time. Jamas is "never" in the sense that there is no possible way that it will happen. A bit more emphasis when using jamas.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ScottBoggs3

So it wouldn't really make sense to say "jamás antes" because jamás implies it couldn't happen anyway?

10 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AnonymousNobody

So, when someone asks the protagonist if she has ever worked with the villain, she says, "Nunca." But when the villain asks if she will join him, she says, "Jamás!"

...Sí?

9 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ronkisimo
ronkisimo
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bump why would jamas not work. does it have something to do with usage at the beginning go the sentence?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/el-Canguro

same for me ?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Alf42
Alf42
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Why was "Èl nunca antes me había tratado tan bien." marked incorrect? The èl at the beginning seems to be the problem - but why?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/dawithers

I can never figure out where in the sentence to place things like "nunca antes". In this case I could have just placed them at the front of the sentence in a direct translation, but sometimes the English phrase doesn't place them at the front and I always seem to do it wrong.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/pleatkilty

Nunca always seems to be as close to the front as possible. Except when that isn't the case.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/slycoffee
slycoffee
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awww, you're a perfect human being

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jabenpor
jabenpor
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why not never before he had treated me so well? which is the sense of to put "had he"?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/tim_critt

This is an advanced form in English. It is called "inversion" and it is used for emphasis. It seems to break the usual rule of "subject before verb". After certain phrases like "never before", "not since", and "rarely" you can invert the subject and the verb to emphasise what you are saying. it makes your writing sound more formal too.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/TFG
TFG
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And never would he again

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/herbert1985
herbert1985
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Nunca antes un presidente ha mentido tanto.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Bob20020
Bob20020
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Sounds like a quote from Sue on The Middle.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/aidan8
aidan8
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Why is it not a double negative in this case? I understood that was standard in Spanish even though a literal translation made it seem positive in English. I said "Nunca antes no me habia tratado tan bien" and got pinged for it. Second guessing doesn't always pay off. it seems :(

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/aboyer02
aboyer02
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The second part of the sentence deals with a positive attribute 'bien'. The double negative would not apply in this case.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/aidan8
aidan8
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Thanks aboyer02

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AaronDandr
AaronDandr
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Why "asi bien" it is wrong, But "tan bien" it is good? What is the difference?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jindr004
jindr004
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Asi is usually used as a comparative, which would make it more appropriate with a phrase like Antes él me había tratado asi bien, but not the negative.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/tecalai

Since it had never happened before and was not a repeated action of the past, I do not understand why 'hubo' could not be used instead of 'habia.' Can someone enlighten me? Thanks.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JuevesHuevos

My Spanish teacher told me that as long as you can make a good argument either way for using the preterite vs. imperfect, you're on the right track. Sometimes both of them could be used and it wouldn't change the meaning of the sentence too much.

For me, I think the imperfect makes sense here because it's not stated when the action was completed. To treat someone usually means how you act towards that person, how you relate to them in every moment of every day, over long periods of time.

Or maybe it was just for one evening. "Never before (and never again!) had he treated me so well (than he did when he took me out to eat at that restaurant"

So I agree it could go either well, but "to treat someone" is usually an ongoing behavior, not just a one-time event so I think the imperfect works well here.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/tecalai

Everything you say is correct. However, when I read it, my thought was that "Never before (not one time), had he treated me so well as he did after the one event that changed everything . . . so I was not considering it to be ongoing treatment. I guess we could say it never happened . . . over and over again. :) I do know hubo is used less these days than habia, and I would have been safer to use habia, but this forces me to stop and give it serious thought. Thanks for sharing your thoughts.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/chris627201

Domestic abuse is real.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Helen208222

Yes... this sounds creepy, like 'he' is setting the previously-despised speaker up for a fall.

4 months ago