"The children's dogs"

Translation:Barnens hundar

December 21, 2014

12 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/RicardoSA54

isn't "barn" an "ett" word? so wouldn't "barnets" be correct?

April 22, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/Zmrzlina

Barn is an ett-word, yes. But this is the children's dogs, in the definite plural. Barnets is definite singular.

April 22, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/SheenaBastet

I thought that the THE was related to dogs and not to child, so i wrote "Barnets" too

January 5, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/Jayna_Johns

Could "barns hundarna" also work as a translation, since knowing which word the the belongs to is a little vague in English? This wasn't my answer, I'm just wondering.

December 21, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/Lundgren8

No, that doesn’t work. That would be the equivalent of ”children’s the dogs” which doesn’t make sense in English either.

December 21, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/kippy-burrite

I can see what Jayna Johns is getting at, perhaps better phrased as 'the dogs of the children' - but would that be phrased in a similar way in Swedish to the English?

October 27, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/Lundgren8

No, because Swedish does not use the of-construction as English does in examples like these.

October 27, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/DenisLavergne

Ok. I have a good question. The subject in this sentence is not the children but the dogs. I had incorrect for typing : "Barnens hundarna". You follow me?... I was wondering if my sentence was more idiomatically correct?

December 2, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/Arnauti

We never use the definite after nouns in the genitive, just like you don't in English. You wouldn't say the children's the dogs. It's the same in Swedish.

It's also the same with possessive pronouns. We say min bok 'my book' and you cannot have a definite noun instead in either language – you can't say "my the book" and you couldn't have boken after min in Swedish either.

December 3, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/DenisLavergne

Ok. That was very enlightening. I understand a little bit more now. Tack så mycket!

December 3, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/Arnauti

It could be explained along these lines: the basic meaning of the definite form is to say 'you know which one I mean'. But since when you reach the word in question, you have already said something that makes it clear that it is something known, it doesn't make sense to add that grammatical marker. (if this doesn't make sense to you, just disregard it – it's just a suggestion for how to think of it).

December 3, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/alexgrossini

new question: there is a phrase that is quite the same in my exercise, "Our children´s books", which translates into "våra barns böcker". I guess you will say this one (the children´s dogs) is a definite form, and the other one is not. But i can not understand why the other is not. In italian, we translate the two into: - "i cani dei bambini" (barnens hundar, hund = cane and barn = bambino) - "i nostri libri" which is equivalent to "i libri di noi" (våra = nostri/di noi and böcker = libri) both cases have the same "genitive" ("dei bambini" = "di noi"), so it is quite hard to get why I can not put "våra barnens böcker"

April 1, 2018
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