Privat ska ha betoningen i slutet = priVAT, inte i början. ('Privat' has the stress on the last vowel, -vAt, not on the first syllable)
egen = proper (your own); egendom = property; when speaking of houses and/or some kind of territory
The ‘dom’ in ‘domicile’ is a Latin root meaning home, found also in such words as ‘domestic’ (and also related to the Latin root for a lord, found in such words as ‘dominate’, through the idea of the master of the house). This is related to other Indo-European words such as ‘дом’ (Russian for a house), but not to the Germanic suffix ‘‑dom’, which has nothing to do with homes specifically (and which would violate Grimm's Law if related).
... but saidly incorrect -- Just as with German "-tum" and english -dom it is a suffix that simply signifies a state, in this case "state of being owned." Compare with english "boredom", "freedom", etc. (state of being bored, state of being free..) Some examples in Swedish: "ungdom" -- "youth" (young-ness), "rikedom" (comp. German "Reichtum) -- "wealth" ("richdom" :-) ; barndom -- childhood (child-dom, err, child-hood). Also see https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/-dom#Swedish . Some example from German: Reichtum, Altertum, Judentum... and of course Eigentum (egendom)
Sorry for putting it here, but why is egendom pronounced like that: the rule is that it's supposed to be pronounced as 'j' when before 'e', but in that word it's pronounced like a 'g' nonetheless. I even went to a bookstore today but none of the textbook touch the issue and only found another word like that, 'stege' where this trick is done again. This resource https://www2.hhs.se/isa/swedish/chap9.htm also doesn't mention this.
Good observation! Never thought about it, because 'egen' (own) is always pronounced with a hard 'g'. I guess we (Swedes) are not very consistent ... so you have to learn the exceptions by heart. Sometimes there are differences due to accents from different parts of the country. My grandmother would probably have pronounced it soft, 50 years ago. But today I never hear that variant.
I think - but this is just a guess - that it depends on which syllable is stressed. For instance:
- hard g - Aga, Egen, BAgare, LEgo, etc.
- soft g - iGEN, GEN, beGÄRa
This covers words that contain both as well, such as e-GENT-LI-gen.
Maybe somebody else can provide a definite answer. :)
I like your explanation, it sounds very plausible, when I think about it. But of course, there might still be exceptions. E.g. there are some words that can be pronounced in two ways, and we choose, and neither is wrong. Two of those are 'Kex' (buscuit) which I always pronounce with a hard 'k' (while others use a soft 'k') and 'Kiosk', which I always pronounce with a soft 'K' (while others might use a hard 'k'). But thanks for your insight.
I agree - I don't think it's a cover-all explanation, especially with regional variations (e.g. kex / sheks) coming into play.