"She usually wants to swim in the morning."

Translation: Hon brukar vilja simma på morgonen.

[heathmar]

Can "vill" also work here or does it lack the 'desire' or 'choosing' in the matter?

[Lundgren8]

”Vilja” is the infinitive form of ”vill”, so you do have it there.

• Hon vill simma. (She wants to swim.)
• Hon brukar vilja simma. (She tends to want to swim.)

[jennifer856684]

why is it i kväll and på morgonen ..why not på kväll and i morgonen

[ApurvaNand1]

Why doesn't the verb vilja come before brukar ? V2 rule?

[linxthelinx]

Also, bruka is a verb.

[Robin479]

Because in the English sentence "She usually wants to swim …" (Hon brukar vilja simma), rather than "She wants to get in the habit of swimming …" (Hon vill bruka simma).

[Nezer5]

Why not hon brukar vilja att simma

[Robin479]

(att) vilja = (to) want (to)

(att) vilja att … = (to) want (that) …

in the first form, "vilja" acts as an auxiliary verb and requires another infinitive main verb (unless you are a toddler). the "to" of "want to" is automatically implied and has no separate swedish translation. you simply append the main verb in the infinite form (here: "(att) vilja simma", "(to) want to swim").

in the second form ("(att) vilja att …"), "vilja" acts as the main verb and the trailing "att …" introduces a subordinate clause that requires another subject and verb, but that was not duo's question and you missed to provide a subject for the subclause as well. "hon brukar vilja att simma" literally translates to "she usually wants that swim(ming)", which makes no sense.

"(att) bruka" is yet another auxiliary verb that requires an infinitive verb to follow (here: "(att) bruka vilja …", "(to) tend to wanting (to) …" or "(to) be used to wanting (to) …" or simply "(to) usually want (to) …").
because "(att) bruka" is the first verb in this train of verbs (i.e. in the predicate of the sentence, "(att) bruka vilja simma") it gets conjugated to "brukar".

[Chrisbilljohn]

Could you say, "Vanligen vill hon simma på morgonen"

[Chrisbilljohn]

The English sentence is !"... usually wants to swim...." and usually translates into vanligen, both of which are adverbs modifying the verb to swim, 'simma'. so why does that not work?

[ChrisLinds20]

Sorry, but I haven't seen the explanation for "usually" being a verb in Swedish. It is an adverb in English and would be the same grammatically as "often" or "never."

[Chrisbilljohn]

Exactly; "vanligen", adverb: "simma" is the verb, so surely it works?

[Cali343096]

I'm neither an English nor Swedish native speaker, but I try to explain (at least that's how I understand it):
"brukar" it a verb, so you can't replace it with vanligen.
It means something like: doing it usually
So the sentecne is:
She "usually does" to want to swim in the morning
(And as "bruka" is one of the verbs that behave like modal auxiliaries, there's no "att" requiered)

[ChrisLinds20]

Thanks. Yes, I am assuming that the English translation of a Swedish word is not always exact. I can get that brukar as a verb would have to mean something like "usually does" as you said. Otherwise it can't be a verb. Thanks.