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"Ella tiene algo que decirle a ella."

Translation:She has something to say to her.

5 years ago

65 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/fotopala

"She has something to tell her" is the same as saying "She has something to say to her."

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/droma
droma
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Your translation is accepted.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Talca
Talca
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NOTA: The a ella at the end is optional. In conversation it may not be necessary. Without context, we're a little lost here...

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Andreaja69
Andreaja69
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However, 'a ella' does clarify that it is 'to her', rather 'to him' or 'to you'.

10 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Machupichoo

I put "She has to say something to her." because "tener que" means to have to. It was accepted, but I think it differs in meaning from the correct answer of "She has something to say to her." Any thoughts on this.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mangybum

It is tener algo que. Not tener que.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/elissaf1
elissaf1
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From all examples thus far, splitting up sets of verbs has never been permitted, so I think the 'que' is conjunction meaning that, rather than part of the verb periphrasis "tener que".

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Luchtmens
Luchtmens
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I think that "She has to say something to her." = Ella tiene que decirle algo a ella. or perhaps Ella le tiene que decir algo a ella., though I'm not sure.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Jeffrey855877
Jeffrey855877
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A few online translators gave similar translations. "tener que" is the idiom for "to have to", it seems, and if it's different, then it's not the idiom, but something else.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Varys

Why the "que"?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/justintime284

Why is it decirle and not decirla?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/johnkelgh

Lo and la are direct object pronouns. In spanish the thing being said is the direct object hence the recipient of what is being said is the indirect object requiring the use of le. It's like saying: 'She has to say it to her'

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jar30pma23

Gracias!

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/momaguiar

I don't understand why le is added to decir. Why can't we just say decir ? Could someone please explain this to me.

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Andreaja69
Andreaja69
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As I've just explained to you further down this page, 'le' here means 'to her'. Pronouns can be added on to the end of infinitive verbs, so in this case it is 'decirle'.

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/BenYoung84
BenYoung84
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Think of "a ella" being the optional added bit, "le" is the essential part of the sentence as the translation of "to her". When the verb is in the infinitive form the personal pronouns always get hooked onto the end of the verb.

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SusannaEDavis420

Why is "que" in this sentence?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/amble2lingo

The "que" marks the start of a subordinate clause. It can be translated as "that, which, who, or whom," but often remains untranslated (as here), and sometimes you need to add a few words to get a smooth translation. Main clause: "Ella tiene algo..." = She has something... Subordinate clause: "...que decirle... = (which) to tell her.... or, to say to her....

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SusannaEDavis420

¡Gracias!

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/PnutButtrCrepes

I'm not too sure myself, but I'm pretty sure that "que" can also be used to mark the passive infinitive in Spanish. In English, the passive infinitive is simply marked by a bare infinitive after the object, but it could also be translated as "for." In French, it's marked with the preposition "à." For example, "We have food to eat." In this sentence, "to eat" is in the infinitive, but it marks the purpose of the food: the purpose of food is to be eaten (a passive action), and the verb "to eat" is not directly related to the main verb. You can also phrase this as "We have food for eating." Therefore, it seems logical to me to say that "que" acts like the preposition "for" in English in this construction. So, don't think of it as "tener que" in this case, but rather as "algo que + infinitive" (something to ___).

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/momisha

How would one say she had something to say to her self

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Duomail
Duomail
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Ella tenía/tuvo algo que decirse (a sí misma).

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ehsanz89

le is necessary here?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/amble2lingo

Yes. "Le" is the indirect object (=to her) and is required even though the optional clarifying phrase "a ella" is also included.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/PeterWells3

Why is "a ella" optional? Without it we would not know to whom she was saying it.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/amble2lingo

Right, Peter. With this isolated sentence Duo has given us, we would be at a loss as to how to translate it. But, in the real world, if the sentence is spoken in the context of a conversation, the listener may already know who we are talking about, in which case the "a ella" can be dropped - it is optional.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jar30pma23

Can someone help clarify "decirle". It seems to be decir + le?? Which means??

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/malkeynz
malkeynz
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It's the same as saying "Ella le tiene algo que decir a ella" - the object pronoun can take one of two positions, and if it is appended on the end it becomes part of the word (verb).

I'm not a native speaker though, so one position may be preferred over the other for this particular sentence because of how it sounds or whatever.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/momaguiar

but why is 'le' there in the first place? I just don't get it.......

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Andreaja69
Andreaja69
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The word 'le' in this case means 'to her'. 'She has something to say to her'. But as 'le' could also mean 'to him', 'a ella' is added on to clarify. The omission of 'le', however, is not an option.

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Talca
Talca
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jar30pma23: "Which means??" to say (decir) le (to her)

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/OsmanB.Bar

"She has something to say to her." Simple as it is

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/RichardSmi760243

In English, has something to say to her is not the same as has to say something to her. The latter conveys an obligation. Tener que + infinitive seems generally to mean "have to do something." If that is correct, does translation "has something to say" in someway miss the point?

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Andreaja69
Andreaja69
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'She has something to say to her' is exactly the right meaning here, because 'tener... que' is separated by 'algo' so the sense of obligation of 'tener que' no longer applies.

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/RichardSmi760243

Gracias

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/caithness

Arizonakeith has my vote. I felt I was being told (to) how to speak my own language.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rogercchristie
rogercchristie
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Is this comment on the right page?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/He110

I am not used to having tiene and que split. Would, Ella tiene que decirle algo a ella be: 'She has to say something to her'.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/amble2lingo

But here the "tener" and the "que" are split up by the word "algo." If anything comes between the words "tener" (conjugated) and "que," the sense of obligation, the "have to," is broken. So this sentence is not "She has to say something to her," but "She has something to say to her."

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Rhiawolf
Rhiawolf
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It's just like in English. "Have to" is very different from "have something to".

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/BeedleBoo

why is it algo as opposed to alguno or algun??

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/amble2lingo

Algo = something, anything. Alguno/algún = some, someone, any. Look things up for yourself. Here's one site where you can do this: http://www.spanishdict.com/

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/elissaf1
elissaf1
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Jaja! "Look things up for yourself". Que revolucionario! (Te di un lingot.)

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/kiltown
kiltown
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This one is all about her !!

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/elissaf1
elissaf1
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And her, too!

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/TniaMami

What the difference between have and has when using tiene?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/amble2lingo

Tengo = I have.
Tienes = You (informal tú) have.
Tiene = He, she, it has or You (formal "usted") have.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/runninbear

Is she must say something to her acceptable?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/amble2lingo

No. This is not a"tener que" expression! So translating it as either "has to" or "must" is incorrect.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/RobinThor
RobinThor
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I was wondering that too, is there a difference in English between "must" and "have to"? According to me not

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Opubo
Opubo
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Why not: "she has to speak to her"

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Andreaja69
Andreaja69
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'She has to speak to her' would be 'Ella tiene que hablarle a ella'

10 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/diwilliamson

why can't I say 'she must' instead of 'she has to'? don't they mean the same?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Andreaja69
Andreaja69
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There is no 'has to' in this sentence, as 'tiene' is not followed immediately by 'que'. The 'que' is used here instead of the English 'to': 'She has something TO say to her'.

10 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/vanw39
vanw39
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At first I thought this was "She has something that speaks to her." but figured that was trying to impose an English idiom on Spanish. How would one say that?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/BenYoung84
BenYoung84
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This is a very strange sentence. Is it implying that the two ellas are the same person? If so we wouldn't phrase it using an infinitive in English, it's just too murky, it would be rephrased with a subject for say/tell. If the ellas are different people I suppose it makes more sense grammatically but it's still confusing. I wonder if there are these issues in Spanish?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Andreaja69
Andreaja69
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I can't quite make out why 'She has something to say to her' is a strange sentence. If we give the second 'her' a name, Mary, for instance, then 'She has something to say to Mary' doesn't sound strange at all.

10 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Brandon756

Why not? she has something to declare to her? It sounds odd, but it helps me remember since the words are close.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/amble2lingo

That doesn't work because "declararle" (to declare) is not the same as "decirle" (to say).

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/RWang2017
RWang2017
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Can we use para or por instead of que here?

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/amble2lingo

No. "Que" is important here because it marks the beginning of the subordinate clause. You can translate que as "which" in your head, "She has something (which) to say to her," but it usually remains untranslated for a smooth translation. Also see my previous comment up toward the top.

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Karun523898

Why isn't "Ella tiene algo que le decir a ella" accepted ?

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/BenYoung84
BenYoung84
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When you have the full/infinitive form of the verb then the pronoun must be joined to the end instead of placed before it:

decirle, not le decir.

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/amble2lingo

No Ben. When you have an object pronoun used with an infinitive or present participle (and it is not a command) you have the option of placing the object pronoun before the infinitive or present participle or attached to the end of it.
https://www.spanishdict.com/guide/direct-object-pronoun-placement
https://www.spanishdict.com/guide/indirect-object-pronoun-placement

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/BenYoung84
BenYoung84
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Amble you're mistaken. The pronoun can never be placed directly before an infinitive, a gerund, or a positive imperative form. When you have a conjugated verb followed by the infinitive then the pronoun can either go before the conjugated verb or be joined to the end of the infinitive, e.g. see your own link:

Lo voy a comprar, or
Voy a comprarlo but never
Voy a lo comprar.

In this exercise there is only one (infinitive) verb and the object must be joined to the end. Reread your links and you will see that this is the case.

4 months ago