"Jag har tappat nycklarna."

Translation:I have lost my keys.

December 28, 2014

This discussion is locked.


i spend over 3 hours looking for the articke "the" to make up "the keys" and then you cone and say "nycklarna" can be "my keys"?!


The joys of learning by trial and error :)


"Another correct solution: I have lost MY keys". Can "my" be assumed here? Is it more correct/common to use it or leave it out?


You're most likely to lose your own keys. If I lost my keys, I'd be most likely to say Jag har tappat nycklarna rather than mina nycklar. But both work. In English however, you would probably not say I have lost the keys if you meant your own keys.


But you would say "I have lost (dropped) the keys" If "the" keys were keys that you were talking about with someone. The keys to the boat, the bike, the office, the keys to whatever you were discussing. "My" keys are your (not before mentioned) personal keys, otherwise it is "the" keys.


Could also be i have dropped my keys?


Yes, definitely.


I put dropped but it was marked wrong


interesting to note some parallels with a language from a different family: in Kazakh, "tappady" means "didn't find", which, although doesn't mean the same, makes the word more memorizable for me :)


Could you use tappat to say "mina nycklarna är tappat."?


No, doesn't work.
Also, you can never have the definite form after a possessive pronoun, just like you can't say my the keys in English.


Oh yeah! So, "Mina nycklar är förlorad" might be okay? Is that because tappat is a verb?


The form would be förlorade, since the keys are plural, but it still sounds very odd to say that about keys. Vi är förlorade works for 'We are lost' (not as in 'lost in the woods', but as in 'our lives are ruined'). It's the participle that makes it too weird, because as a verb it's fine: jag har förlorat nycklarna. If you really want to use a participle, borttappade works though. That's formed from a particle verb tappa bort which means 'drop', 'lose'.


The keys. Not my keys. Pls correct


It isn't a mistake. In Swedish, we very often use the definite when it's obvious whose thing(s) we're talking about. If you say Jag har tappat nycklarna, it will usually be assumed that you've lost your own keys. It isn't wrong to say Jag har tappat mina nycklar, but it's unnecessary and sounds a little less idiomatic.
This is one of the things this sentence is meant to teach you.


So how would I say "I have lost keys" in Swedish and what would this mean in English: "Jag har tappat mina nyclarna"?


Jag har tappat nycklar, I guess.

Jag har tappat mina nycklarna isn't grammatical Swedish. Just like in English, saying "my the keys" doesn't work.


"Mina" is missing e.g. it's not "my" keys? Could be any keys?


Please refer to Arnauti's above comments.


Jag har tappat nycklarna = I have lose keys Jag har tappat mina nycklarna = I have lost my keys


No, that's not right. Swedish uses the definite to indicate possession here. Even if it didn't, the first one would have been "I have lost the keys" rather than "I have lose keys", and the second one would have been mina nycklar rather than mina nycklarna.


Jag har tappat mina nycklarna would be correct -.-


No, it wouldn't - mina nycklarna would mean "my the keys".

Learn Swedish in just 5 minutes a day. For free.