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As a native speaker of Midwestern US English, I thought "bad taste" and "poor taste" would be the same, too, but opinions differ:
The Collins Cobuild English Learner's dictionary helps people who are unfamiliar with English to learn new words and idiomatic phrases. The entry that matches this particular situation is: 10. "If you say that someone has good taste, you mean that you approve of their choices" and "His taste in clothes is extremely good" is the citation for usage. The technical note by the heading "taste" for this particular use is N-Uncount. The editor explains: An uncount noun refers to things that are not normally counted or considered to be individual items. Uncount nouns do not have a plural form and are used with a singular verb. They do not need determiners, e.g. "an area of outstanding natural beauty." Taste in this particular usage is an example of an "uncount noun" (to use the Collins terminology) so it is not preceded by "a" or "the". The editor also mentions that tase can be used in this sense in the plural: "...a large family with different tastes and preferences" which might seem to contradict what is said in the technical note above.
I commented for a different reason above, but looking back I am confused about why the word is "mau" (feminine) instead of "mal" since it is agreeing with "gosto" which is masculine, and not with the feminine "roupas." I'm sure the answer is simple, but I can't come up with it. Obrigado.