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As a native speaker of Midwestern US English, I thought "bad taste" and "poor taste" would be the same, too, but opinions differ:
The Collins Cobuild English Learner's dictionary helps people who are unfamiliar with English to learn new words and idiomatic phrases. The entry that matches this particular situation is: 10. "If you say that someone has good taste, you mean that you approve of their choices" and "His taste in clothes is extremely good" is the citation for usage. The technical note by the heading "taste" for this particular use is N-Uncount. The editor explains: An uncount noun refers to things that are not normally counted or considered to be individual items. Uncount nouns do not have a plural form and are used with a singular verb. They do not need determiners, e.g. "an area of outstanding natural beauty." Taste in this particular usage is an example of an "uncount noun" (to use the Collins terminology) so it is not preceded by "a" or "the". The editor also mentions that tase can be used in this sense in the plural: "...a large family with different tastes and preferences" which might seem to contradict what is said in the technical note above.
I commented for a different reason above, but looking back I am confused about why the word is "mau" (feminine) instead of "mal" since it is agreeing with "gosto" which is masculine, and not with the feminine "roupas." I'm sure the answer is simple, but I can't come up with it. Obrigado.
In North America I hear , "X was in bad taste" when people are commenting about what someone else has said or done. On the other hand, I think I hear "X was in poor taste" fairly regularly and it might simply be a generational thing. I have never heard a native speaker say bad or poor taste "for" anything, so I agree that would be wrong. DuoLinguo marked my response "You have poor taste in clothing" wrong which I consider absolutely equivalent.
Poor taste is used primarily for things that are morally questionable, offensive or hurtful; bad taste is sometimes used for that as well, but can also be used for judgements that are purely esthetic / no moral component. Telling dirty jokes in a nunnery is in poor taste; wearing red stripes with pink polka dots is merely displaying bad taste. ; )
It's easy to run a search on Google and find just about anything, but what's important here is whether or not the hits that you find are from native English speakers. It would be tedious in the extreme to sort through 11,000 hits but I've never yet heard one of my contemporaries or anyone on Canadian television say "a bad taste" in anything. "Having bad taste" or "Having poor taste" is simply an idiomatic expression which doesn't require an article. The only phrase that I know of where you say "a bad taste" is "leave a bad taste in someone's mouth" where the implication is that whatever was done was repugnant.
If you're going to dogmatically assert 'In English we wouldn't ever say "a bad taste"' I'm entitled to point out there are at least 187,000 instances where you're wrong, if only for the benefit of non-English speakers who might mistakenly assume you know what you're talking about. There's more to the world than Canada.
I apologize because I think my response must have seemed like a personal attack. You are correct; my response is prescriptive rather than descriptive. Further, English varies all over the world and I would be a fool to ignore that. The only thing is that people ought to check any Google search to see whether it's likely that the hit is from a source that's more likely to be high quality than not.